ISRO Electronics & Communication (ECE) 2007 Question Paper & Solutions
Attempt the ISRO Electronics & Communication (ECE) 2007 previous year paper in real CBT exam mode or practice mode with verified answers and explanations.
All ISRO Electronics & Communication (ECE) papers
80 questions.
Question 1
With fixed value capacitor C and variable voltage V across it, the energy stored in the capacitor is
- A. $CV²$
- B. $0.5 CV²$
- C. $2 CV²$
- D. CV
Answer: B. $0.5 CV²$
Explanation: Energy stored in capacitor is given as: Energy = $\frac{1}{2}CV²$
Question 2
A dc voltage V is applied to a series RL circuit. The steady state current is
- A. V/R
- B. V/L
- C. $\frac{V}{\sqrt{R²+L²}}$
- D. zero
Answer: A. V/R
Explanation: The transient current is given by $i(t) = \frac{V}{R}(1 - e^{-tR/L})$. At steady state ($t \rightarrow \infty$), $i(\infty) = \frac{V}{R}(1 - e^{-\infty}) = \frac{V}{R}$
Question 3
The time-constant of the network shown in the figure is \n\n[Figure needs to be uploaded later]
- A. CR
- B. 2 CR
- C. CR/4
- D. CR/2
Answer: A. CR
Explanation: [Figure needs to be uploaded later]\n$R_{eq} = \frac{R}{2}$, $C_{eq} = 2C$. Time-constant $t = R_{eq}C_{eq} = \frac{R}{2} \cdot 2C = RC$.
Question 4
In the ideal Op-amp circuit shown, $V_0$ is \n\n[Figure needs to be uploaded later]
- A. $2 V_s$
- B. $-2 V_s$
- C. $3 V_s$
- D. $-3 V_s$
Answer: C. $3 V_s$
Explanation: [Figure needs to be uploaded later]\n$V_0 = (1 + \frac{R_f}{R_1})V_s = (1 + \frac{2R}{R})V_s = 3V_s$
Question 5
If the unit step response of a system is a unit impulse function, then the transfer function of such a system will be
Answer: C. s
Question 6
Three resistors of 6 ohms each are connected as shown in the following figure. The equivalent resistance between $X_1$ and $X_2$ is \n\n[Figure needs to be uploaded later]
- A. 2 ohms
- B. 4 ohms
- C. 8 ohms
- D. 12 ohms
Answer: A. 2 ohms
Explanation: [Figure needs to be uploaded later]\nThese three resistances are in parallel, so $\frac{1}{R_{eq}} = \frac{1}{6} + \frac{1}{6} + \frac{1}{6} = \frac{3}{6}$. $R_{eq} = \frac{6}{3} = 2 \Omega$.
Question 7
The source in the circuit shown is a sinusoidal source. The supply voltages across various elements are marked in the figure. The input voltage is \n\n[Figure needs to be uploaded later]
- A. 10 V
- B. 5 V
- C. 27 V
- D. 24 V
Answer: B. 5 V
Question 8
Laplace transform of $e^{-at} f(t)$ is
- A. $F(s)e^{-at}$
- B. $F(s-a)$
- C. $F(s+a)$
- D. $\frac{F(s)}{s}+a$
Answer: C. $F(s+a)$
Question 9
$\cos \theta$ can be represented by
- A. $\frac{e^{+j\theta}-e^{-j\theta}}{2}$
- B. $\frac{e^{j\theta}-e^{-j\theta}}{2j}$
- C. $\frac{e^{j\theta}+e^{-j\theta}}{2}$
- D. $\frac{e^{j\theta}+e^{-j\theta}}{2j}$
Answer: C. $\frac{e^{j\theta}+e^{-j\theta}}{2}$
Question 10
Of the following transfer functions of second order linear time-invariant systems, the underdamped system is represented by
- A. $H(S)=\frac{1}{S²+4S+4}$
- B. $H(S)=\frac{1}{S²+5S+4}$
- C. $H(S)=\frac{1}{S²+4.5S+4}$
- D. $H(S)=\frac{1}{S²+3S+4}$
Answer: D. $H(S)=\frac{1}{S²+3S+4}$
Explanation: Comparing $H(s)=\frac{1}{s²+3s+4}$ with standard form $H(s)=\frac{\omega_n^2}{s²+2\xi\omega_ns+\omega_n^2}$, we get $2\xi\omega_n=3$ and $\omega_n=2$. Thus, $\xi=\frac{3}{4}=0.75$. Since $\xi<1$, the system is underdamped.
Question 11
A differential amplifier has a differential gain of 20,000. CMRR = 80 dB. The common mode gain is given by
Answer: A. 2
Explanation: $CMRR_{dB} = 20 \log(\frac{A_d}{A_{cm}})$. $80 = 20 \log(\frac{A_d}{A_{cm}})$. $\frac{A_d}{A_{cm}} = 10^4 = 10000$. $A_{cm} = \frac{A_d}{10000} = \frac{20000}{10000} = 2$.
Question 12
Two bulbs marked 200 watt - 250 volts and 100 watt - 250 volts are joined in series to 250 volt supply. Power consumed in circuits is
- A. 33 watt
- B. 67 watt
- C. 100 watt
- D. 300 watt
Answer: B. 67 watt
Explanation: [Figure needs to be uploaded later]\n$P_1 = \frac{V_1^2}{R_1} \Rightarrow 200 = \frac{250^2}{R_1} \Rightarrow R_1 = 312.5 \Omega$. $P_2 = \frac{V_2^2}{R_2} \Rightarrow 100 = \frac{250^2}{R_2} \Rightarrow R_2 = 625 \Omega$. $R_{eq} = R_1 + R_2 = 937.5 \Omega$. $I = \frac{V}{R_{eq}} = \frac{250}{937.5} = 0.266 A$. Power consumed $= V \cdot I = 250 \times 0.266 = 66.67 \approx 67$ Watt.
Question 13
The 6 V zener diode shown in the figure, has zero zener resistance and a knee current of 5 mA. The minimum value of R so that the voltage across it does not fall below 6 V is \n\n[Figure needs to be uploaded later]
- A. 1.2 k ohms
- B. 80 ohms
- C. 50 ohms
- D. 0 ohms
Answer: B. 80 ohms
Explanation: [Figure needs to be uploaded later]\n$I = \frac{10 - 6}{50} = 80$ mA. $I_{zk} = 5$ mA. $I_{Lmax} = I - I_{zk} = (80 - 5) = 75$ mA. $R_{Lmin} = \frac{V_L}{I_{Lmax}} = \frac{6 V}{75 mA} = 80 \Omega$.
Question 14
A zener diode in the circuit shown in the figure below, has a knee current of 5 mA, and a maximum allowed power dissipation of 300 mW. What are the minimum and maximum load currents that can be drawn safely from the circuit, keeping the output voltage $V_0$ at 6 V? \n\n[Figure needs to be uploaded later]
- A. 0 mA, 180 mA
- B. 5 mA, 110 mA
- C. 10 mA, 55 mA
- D. 60 mA, 180 mA
Answer: C. 10 mA, 55 mA
Explanation: [Figure needs to be uploaded later]\n$P_{zmax} = 300$ mW. $I_{zmax} = \frac{300 mW}{6 V} = 50$ mA. $I = \frac{9 - 6}{50} = 60$ mA. $I_{Lmin} = I - I_{zmax} = 60 - 50 = 10$ mA. $I_{zmin} = 5$ mA. $I_{Lmax} = I - I_{zmin} = 60 - 5 = 55$ mA.
Question 15
The voltages at $V_1$ and $V_2$ of the arrangement shown in figure will be respectively \n\n[Figure needs to be uploaded later]
- A. 6 V and 5.4 V
- B. 5.4 V and 6 V
- C. 3 V and 5.4 V
- D. 6 V and 6 V
Answer: D. 6 V and 6 V
Explanation: [Figure needs to be uploaded later]\nIn the first case $D_1$ diode will be forward biased so $V_2 = 6V$. In the second case due to 10 k$\Omega$ resistor there will be some voltage drop across this resistor, so diode $D_2$ is also forward biased and voltage $V_1 = 6V$.
Question 16
A 24 V, 600 mW, Zener diode is to be used for providing a 24 V stabilized supply to a variable load. Assume that for proper Zener action, a minimum of 10 mA must flow through the Zener. If the input voltage is 32 V, what would be the value of R and the maximum load current? \n\n[Figure needs to be uploaded later]
- A. 320 $\Omega$, 10 mA
- B. 400 $\Omega$, 15 mA
- C. 400 $\Omega$, 10 mA
- D. 320 $\Omega$, 15 mA
Answer: D. 320 $\Omega$, 15 mA
Explanation: [Figure needs to be uploaded later]\n$V_z = 24~V, P_z = 600~mW, I_{zk} = 10~mA$. \n$I_{zmax} = \frac{P_{zmax}}{V_z} = \frac{600~mW}{24~V} = 25~mA$. \nWhen $I_{zmax}$ occur, no current flow through $I_L$ i.e. $R_L$ is open circuited. \n$25~mA = \frac{32 - 24}{R} \Rightarrow R = \frac{8~V}{25~mA} = 320~\Omega$. \n$I = \frac{32 - 24}{320} = 25~mA$. \nMaximum load current $I_{Lmax} = I - I_{zk} = 25~mA - 10~mA = 15~mA$.
Question 17
A half-adder can be constructed using two 2-input logic gates. One of them is an AND-gate, the other is
- A. OR
- B. NAND
- C. NOR
- D. EX-OR
Answer: D. EX-OR
Question 18
For one of the following conditions, clocked J-K flip-flop can be used as DIVIDE BY 2 circuit where the pulse train to be divided is applied at clock input
- A. J=1, K=1 and the flip-flop should have active HIGH inputs
- B. J=1, K=1 and the flip-flop should have active LOW inputs
- C. J=0, K=0 and the flip-flop should have active HIGH inputs
- D. J=1, K=1 and the flip-flop should be a negative edge triggered one
Answer: D. J=1, K=1 and the flip-flop should be a negative edge triggered one
Question 19
Number of comparators needed to build a 6-bit simultaneous A/D converter is
Answer: A. 63
Explanation: Number of comparators used in flash type (simultaneous) A/D converter is $= 2^n - 1 = 2^6 - 1 = 63$. Where, n = number of bits of A/D converter.
Question 20
The A/D converter used in a digital voltmeter could be (1) successive approximation type (2) Flash converter type (3) Dual slope converter type. The correct sequence in the increasing order of their conversion time taken is
- A. 1, 2, 3
- B. 2, 1, 3
- C. 3, 2, 1
- D. 3, 1, 2
Answer: B. 2, 1, 3
Question 21
The circuit is a \n\n[Figure needs to be uploaded later]
- A. Monostable MV
- B. Astable MV
- C. Adder
- D. SR FF
Answer: D. SR FF
Explanation: [Figure needs to be uploaded later]\nCircuit is SR Latch.
Question 22
Which of the following binary number is equal to octal number 66.3
- A. 101101.100
- B. 1101111.111
- C. 111111.1111
- D. 110110.011
Answer: D. 110110.011
Explanation: $(66.3)_8 = (110110.011)_2$
Question 23
The Boolean expression for the output of the logic circuit shown in the figure is \n\n[Figure needs to be uploaded later]
- A. $Y=AB+\overline{AB}+C$
- B. $Y=\overline{A}\overline{B}+AB+\overline{C}$
- C. $Y=A\overline{B}+\overline{A}B+C$
- D. $Y=AB+\overline{A}B+\overline{C}$
Answer: B. $Y=\overline{A}\overline{B}+AB+\overline{C}$
Explanation: [Figure needs to be uploaded later]\n$Y = \overline{(A \oplus B)C} = \overline{A \oplus B} + \overline{C} = A \odot B + \overline{C} = \overline{A}\overline{B} + AB + \overline{C}$
Question 24
For the identity $AB+\overline{A}C+BC=AB+\overline{A}C$, the dual form is
- A. $(A+B)(\overline{A}+B)(B+C)=(A+B)(\overline{A}+C)$
- B. $(\overline{A}+\overline{B})(A+\overline{C})(\overline{B}+\overline{C})=(\overline{A}+\overline{B})(A+\overline{C})$
- C. $(A+B)(\overline{A}+C)(B+C)=(\overline{A}+\overline{B})(A+\overline{C})$
- D. $\overline{A}\overline{B}+A\overline{C}+\overline{B}\overline{C}=\overline{A}\overline{B}+A\overline{C}$
Answer: B. $(\overline{A}+\overline{B})(A+\overline{C})(\overline{B}+\overline{C})=(\overline{A}+\overline{B})(A+\overline{C})$
Explanation: For duality: Step: change AND to OR and vice-versa. Step: complemented to uncomplent and vice-versa. $(\overline{A}+\overline{B})(A+\overline{C})(\overline{B}+\overline{C})=(\overline{A}+\overline{B})(A+\overline{C})$.
Question 25
The logic circuit given below converts a binary code $Y_1Y_2Y_3$ into \n\n[Figure needs to be uploaded later]
- A. Excess-3 code
- B. Gray code
- C. BCD code
- D. Hamming code
Answer: B. Gray code
Question 26
A 4-bit presetable UP counter has preset input 0101. The preset operation takes place as soon as the counter reaches 1111. The modulus of the counter is
Answer: B. 10
Question 27
A 4-bit synchronous counter uses flip-flops with propagation delay time of 25 ns each. The maximum possible time required for change of state will be
- A. 25 ns
- B. 50 ns
- C. 75 ns
- D. 100 ns
Answer: A. 25 ns
Question 28
If a counter having 10 FFs is initially at 0, what count will it hold after 2060 Pulses
- A. 000 000 1100
- B. 000 001 1100
- C. 000 001 1000
- D. 000 000 1110
Answer: A. 000 000 1100
Question 29
The shift register shown in the given figure is initially loaded with the bit pattern 1010. Subsequently the shift register is clocked, and with each clock pulse the pattern gets shifted by one bit position to the right. With each shift, the bit at the serial input is pushed to the left most position (MSB). After how many clock pulses will the content of the shift register become 1010 again? \n\n[Figure needs to be uploaded later]
Answer: B. 7
Question 30
The combinational logic circuit shown in the given figure has an output Q which is \n\n[Figure needs to be uploaded later]
- A. ABC
- B. A+B+C
- C. ABC (bar)
- D. A.B+C
Answer: B. A+B+C
Explanation: [Figure needs to be uploaded later]\n$Q = \overline{A} \cdot \overline{B} \cdot C + \overline{A}B \cdot 1 + A\overline{B} \cdot 1 + AB \cdot 1$ \n$= \overline{A} \cdot \overline{B}C + \overline{A}B + A(\overline{B} + B)$ \n$= \overline{A} \cdot \overline{B}C + \overline{A}B + A \cdot 1$ \n$= \overline{A} \cdot \overline{B}C + (A + B)$ \n$= \overline{A} \cdot \overline{B}C + A + B$ \n$= (\overline{A} + A)(A + \overline{B}C) + B = 1 \cdot (A + \overline{B}C) + B$ \n$= A + (B + \overline{B})(B + C) = A + 1(B + C)$ \n$= A + B + C$
Question 31
A sample-and-hold (S/H) circuit, having a holding capacitor of 0.1 nF, is used at the input of an ADC (analog-to-digital converter). The conversion time of the ADC is 1 $\mu$sec and during this time, the capacitor should not lose more than 0.5% of the charge put across it during the sampling time. The maximum value of the input signal to the S/H circuit is 5 V. The leakage current of the circuit should be less than \n\n[Figure needs to be uploaded later]
- A. 2.5 mA
- B. 0.25 mA
- C. 25.0 $\mu$A
- D. 2.5 $\mu$A
Answer: D. 2.5 $\mu$A
Explanation: [Figure needs to be uploaded later]\n$Q=CV=0.1\times 10^{-9}\times 5=5\times 10^{-10}$ C.\n0.5% of $Q = 5\times 10^{-10}\times \frac{0.5}{100} = 2.5\times 10^{-12}$ C.\n$i = \frac{\Delta Q}{\Delta t} = \frac{2.5\times 10^{-12}}{1\times 10^{-6}} = 2.5~\mu A$.
Question 32
Determine the output voltage of a network shown in figure if the digital input is 1011 \n\n[Figure needs to be uploaded later]
- A. -3.875 V
- B. -4.875 V
- C. -5.875 V
- D. -6.875 V
Answer: D. -6.875 V
Explanation: [Figure needs to be uploaded later]\n$V_0 = -R_f(\frac{V_A}{800k} + \frac{V_B}{400k} + \frac{V_C}{200k} + \frac{V_D}{100k})$\n$= -(\frac{5}{8} + \frac{5}{4} + \frac{0}{2} + \frac{5}{1})$\n$= -(0.625 + 1.25 + 0 + 5) = -6.875 V$.
Question 33
A memory system of size 16 K bytes is required to be designed using memory chips, which have 12 address lines and 4 data lines each. The number of such chips required to design the memory system is
Answer: C. 8
Explanation: Number of chips $= \frac{16\times 1024\times 8}{2^{12}\times 4} = 8$.
Question 34
In time division multiplexing
- A. Time is doubled between bits of a byte
- B. Time slicing at CPU level takes place
- C. Total time available in the channel is divided between several users and each user is allotted a time slice
- D. None of the above
Answer: C. Total time available in the channel is divided between several users and each user is allotted a time slice
Question 35
When a program is being executed in an 8085 microprocessor, its program counter contains
- A. The number of instructions in the current program that have already been executed
- B. The total number of instructions in the program being executed
- C. The memory address of the instruction that is being currently executed
- D. The memory address of the instruction that is to be executed next
Answer: D. The memory address of the instruction that is to be executed next
Question 36
The sum S of A and B in a half adder can be implemented by using K NAND gates. The value of K is
- A. 3
- B. 4
- C. 5
- D. None of these
Answer: B. 4
Explanation: A half adder's sum output is represented by the XOR operation ($A \oplus B$). Implementing a 2-input XOR gate using exclusively 2-input NAND gates requires a minimum of 4 NAND gates.
Question 37
VSWR of a transmission line is always
- A. Less than unity
- B. Greater than unity
- C. Zero
- D. Infinity
Answer: B. Greater than unity
Explanation: $1 \le VSWR < \infty$. So, the transmission line is having VSWR always greater than unity.
Question 38
Wave guide acts like a
- A. High pass filter
- B. Low pass filter
- C. All pass filter
- D. Band reject filter
Answer: A. High pass filter
Explanation: A waveguide allows frequencies above a certain cutoff frequency to propagate while attenuating lower frequencies, thus acting as a high pass filter.
Question 39
The wave length of a 100 MHz electromagnetic wave propagating through a perfect non magnetic dielectric with relative permittivity $\epsilon_r=9$ is
- A. 3 mtrs
- B. 3 cms
- C. 100 cms
- D. 10 cms
Answer: C. 100 cms
Explanation: $\lambda = \frac{v}{f} = \frac{c}{\sqrt{\epsilon_r} \cdot f} = \frac{3\times 10^8 / \sqrt{9}}{100\times 10^6} = \frac{1\times 10^8}{10^8} = 1\text{ m} = 100\text{ cm}$.
Question 40
TEM mode exists in
- A. A circular wave guide
- B. A rectangular wave guide
- C. A co-axial cable
- D. None of the transmission lines
Answer: C. A co-axial cable
Explanation: Transverse Electromagnetic (TEM) mode requires at least two conductors to exist. Coaxial cables have two conductors (inner and outer), whereas standard rectangular or circular waveguides are single-conductor hollow structures and do not support TEM mode.
Question 41
The signal received from a circularly polarized signal by an antenna with linear polarization compared to the signal received by same circularly polarized antenna will be
- A. Maximum
- B. Zero
- C. 3 dB less
- D. 3 dB more
Answer: C. 3 dB less
Explanation: When receiving a circularly polarized wave with a linearly polarized antenna, there is a polarization mismatch loss of 0.5, or 3 dB.
Question 42
When the antenna diameter is doubled, the gain of the antenna
- A. Reduces by half
- B. Increases by 3 dB
- C. Reduces by 3 dB
- D. Increases by 6 dB
Answer: D. Increases by 6 dB
Explanation: Antenna gain is proportional to the square of the diameter ($G \propto D²$). Doubling the diameter increases the gain by a factor of 4. In decibels, $10\log_{10}(4) \approx 6\text{ dB}$.
Question 43
Intrinsic impedance of free space is given as
- A. 75 $\Omega$
- B. 73 $\Omega$
- C. 377 $\Omega$
- D. 300 $\Omega$
Answer: C. 377 $\Omega$
Explanation: Intrinsic impedance of free space $\eta_0 = \sqrt{\frac{\mu_0}{\epsilon_0}} \approx 120\pi \approx 377~\Omega$.
Question 44
Mark the incorrect relation
- A. $D=\epsilon \cdot E$
- B. $B=\mu H$
- C. $J=\sigma E$
- D. $B=\mu D$
Answer: D. $B=\mu D$
Explanation: $B=\mu D$ is incorrect. The correct constitutive relations are $D=\epsilon E$ and $B=\mu H$.
Question 45
If the PRF is 1200 and the pulse width is 1.5 $\mu$s, the duty cycle will be
- A. 12.5 percent
- B. 8 percent
- C. 0.18 percent
- D. 0.12 percent
Answer: C. 0.18 percent
Explanation: Pulse Repetition Time $T = \frac{1}{PRF} = \frac{1}{1200} = 8.33\times 10^{-4}$ s.\nDuty cycle $= \frac{\text{Pulse Width}}{T}\times 100 = \frac{1.5\times 10^{-6}}{8.33\times 10^{-4}}\times 100 = 0.18\%$.
Question 46
When VSWR is 3, reflection coefficient is
Answer: A. 1/2
Explanation: $VSWR = \frac{1+|\Gamma|}{1-|\Gamma|} \Rightarrow 3 = \frac{1+|\Gamma|}{1-|\Gamma|} \Rightarrow |\Gamma| = \frac{1}{2}$
Question 47
Which transmission line is ideal for handling high power?
- A. Coaxial line
- B. Microstrip
- C. Strip line
- D. Rectangular waveguide
Answer: D. Rectangular waveguide
Explanation: Rectangular waveguides have large cross-sectional areas and no center conductor, making them ideal for handling high power with minimal dielectric breakdown or heating compared to coaxial lines.
Question 48
Noise figure is defined as
- A. $F=\frac{S_i/N_i}{S_0/N_0}$
- B. $F=\frac{S_0/N_0}{S_i/N_i}$
- C. $F=\frac{S_0/N_0}{\sqrt{S_i/N_i}}$
- D. $F=\frac{S_i/N_i}{\sqrt{S_0/N_0}}$
Answer: A. $F=\frac{S_i/N_i}{S_0/N_0}$
Explanation: Noise figure (F) is the ratio of the signal-to-noise ratio at the input to the signal-to-noise ratio at the output.
Question 49
Capture effect is a characteristic of
- A. AM system
- B. FM system
- C. PCM system
- D. TDM system
Answer: B. FM system
Explanation: The capture effect is a phenomenon in FM (Frequency Modulation) reception where, if two signals are present at or near the same frequency, the receiver will completely suppress the weaker signal and only output the stronger one.
Question 50
In a band limited channel higher bit rate can be transmitted with
- A. BPSK
- B. QPSK
- C. FM
- D. FSK
Answer: B. QPSK
Explanation: QPSK (Quadrature Phase Shift Keying) transmits 2 bits per symbol, allowing for a higher bit rate in the same bandwidth compared to BPSK (which transmits 1 bit per symbol).
Question 51
In a transmission line terminated with a load equal to the characteristic impedance, the reflection coefficient is
- A. zero
- B. +1
- C. -1
- D. infinity
Answer: A. zero
Explanation: Reflection coefficient $(\Gamma) = \frac{Z_L-Z_0}{Z_L+Z_0}$. If the load matches the characteristic impedance ($Z_L = Z_0$), then $(\Gamma) = \frac{0}{2Z_0} = 0$.
Question 52
Pointing vector $P=E \times H$ has the unit
- A. Watts/metre$^2$
- B. Watts/metre
- C. Watts-metre
- D. Watts-metre$^2$
Answer: A. Watts/metre$^2$
Explanation: The Poynting vector represents the directional energy flux (the energy transfer per unit area per unit time) of an electromagnetic field, measured in Watts per square meter.
Question 53
If 1 watt of RF power is fed to a directional coupler having 30 dB coupling, the power available at the coupled port is
- A. $\frac{1}{30} W$
- B. $\frac{1}{10} W$
- C. $\frac{1}{100} W$
- D. $\frac{1}{1000} W$
Answer: D. $\frac{1}{1000} W$
Explanation: $Coupling (dB) = 10 \log_{10}(\frac{P_{in}}{P_{coupled}})$. With $P_{in} = 1$ W and Coupling = 30 dB, $30 = 10 \log_{10}(\frac{1}{P_{coupled}}) \Rightarrow 3 = \log_{10}(\frac{1}{P_{coupled}}) \Rightarrow \frac{1}{P_{coupled}} = 1000 \Rightarrow P_{coupled} = \frac{1}{1000}$ Watt.
Question 54
The following demodulator scheme requires least $E_b/N_0$
- A. BPSK
- B. FSK
- C. ASK
- D. QAM
Answer: A. BPSK
Explanation: Among the given digital modulation schemes, BPSK (Binary Phase Shift Keying) has the lowest probability of error for a given $E_b/N_0$, meaning it requires the least signal energy per bit for reliable reception.
Question 55
The channel capacity under the Gaussian noise environment for a discrete memoryless channel with a bandwidth of 4 MHz and SNR of 31 is
- A. 20 Mbps
- B. 4 Mbps
- C. 8 Kbps
- D. 4 Kbps
Answer: A. 20 Mbps
Explanation: According to Shannon's channel capacity theorem: $C = B \log_2(1+SNR) = 4 \log_2(1+31) = 4 \log_2(32) = 4 \times 5 = 20$ Mbps.
Question 56
Satellite channel can be attributed
- A. Only bandwidth limited
- B. Only power limited
- C. Both bandwidth and power limited
- D. None of the above
Answer: C. Both bandwidth and power limited
Explanation: Satellite channels face strict limitations on both available frequency spectrum (bandwidth) and the solar power/battery capacity generated onboard the spacecraft (power limited).
Question 57
A unit vector perpendicular to the vectors $a=2i-3j+k$ and $b=i+j-2k$, is
- A. $\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}(-i+j+k)$
- B. $\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}(i+j-k)$
- C. $\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}(i+j+k)$
- D. $(i+j+k)$
Answer: C. $\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}(i+j+k)$
Explanation: $\vec{a} \times \vec{b} = \begin{vmatrix}i&j&k\\2&-3&1\\1&1&-2\end{vmatrix} = i(6-1) - j(-4-1) + k(2+3) = 5i + 5j + 5k$. Unit vector perpendicular to both is $\frac{5(i+j+k)}{\sqrt{5^2+5^2+5^2}} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}(i+j+k)$.
Question 58
The region of the z plane for which $|\frac{z-a}{z+a}|=1 (Re~a \ne 0)$ is
- A. x-axis
- B. y-axis
- C. The straight line $z=|a|$
- D. None of the above
Answer: B. y-axis
Explanation: $|\frac{z-a}{z+a}| = 1 \Rightarrow |z-a| = |z+a| \Rightarrow |x+jy-a| = |x+jy+a| \Rightarrow (x-a)^2+y² = (x+a)^2+y² \Rightarrow x²+a²-2ax+y² = x²+a²+2ax+y² \Rightarrow 4ax = 0 \Rightarrow x = 0$. The equation $x = 0$ corresponds to the y-axis.
Question 59
If $\alpha, \beta, \gamma$ are the roots of equations $x³+px²+qx+p=0$, Then the value of $\tan^{-1}\alpha+\tan^{-1}\beta+\tan^{-1}\gamma$ is
- A. $n\pi/2$
- B. $n\pi$
- C. $2n\pi$
- D. $n\pi/4$
Answer: B. $n\pi$
Explanation: $\tan^{-1}\alpha+\tan^{-1}\beta+\tan^{-1}\gamma = \tan^{-1}(\frac{\alpha+\beta+\gamma-\alpha\beta\gamma}{1-(\alpha\beta+\beta\gamma+\gamma\alpha)})$. For $x³+px²+qx+p=0$, sum of roots $\alpha+\beta+\gamma = -p$, product of roots $\alpha\beta\gamma = -p$, and $\alpha\beta+\beta\gamma+\gamma\alpha = q$. Thus $\tan^{-1}(\frac{-p-(-p)}{1-q}) = \tan^{-1}(0) = n\pi$.
Question 60
The value of the determinant $\begin{vmatrix}1&a&b+c\\1&b&c+a\\1&c&a+b\end{vmatrix}$ is
Answer: A. 0
Explanation: Applying the column operation $C_3 \rightarrow C_2+C_3$, the determinant becomes $\Delta = \begin{vmatrix}1&a&a+b+c\\1&b&a+b+c\\1&c&a+b+c\end{vmatrix} = (a+b+c)\begin{vmatrix}1&a&1\\1&b&1\\1&c&1\end{vmatrix}$. Since $C_1=C_3$, $\Delta=0$.
Question 61
The value of $\int_0^1\int_0^1\frac{dx dy}{\sqrt{(1-x²)(1-y²)}}$ is
- A. $\frac{\pi²}{4}$
- B. $\frac{\pi}{4}$
- C. $\frac{\pi²}{2}$
- D. $\frac{\pi}{2}$
Answer: A. $\frac{\pi²}{4}$
Explanation: $I = \int_0^1\int_0^1\frac{dx dy}{\sqrt{(1-x²)(1-y²)}} = (\int_0^1\frac{dx}{\sqrt{1-x²}})(\int_0^1\frac{dy}{\sqrt{1-y²}})$. Since $\int_0^1\frac{dx}{\sqrt{1-x²}} = [\sin^{-1}x]_0^1 = \sin^{-1}(1) = \frac{\pi}{2}$. $I = \frac{\pi}{2} \times \frac{\pi}{2} = \frac{\pi²}{4}$.
Question 62
Solution of $(D²+16)y=\cos 4x$ is
- A. $y=A\cos 4x+B\sin 4x+\frac{1}{8}\cos 4x$
- B. $y=A\cos 4x+B\sin 4x+\frac{x}{8}\sin 4x$
- C. $y=A\cos 4x+B\sin 4x+\frac{1}{8}\sin 4x$
- D. $y=A\cos 4x+B\sin 4x+\frac{x}{8}\cos 4x$
Answer: B. $y=A\cos 4x+B\sin 4x+\frac{x}{8}\sin 4x$
Explanation: Auxiliary equation is $D²+16=0 \Rightarrow D=\pm 4j$. The Particular Integral (PI) = $\frac{1}{D²+16}\cos 4x = \frac{x}{2D}\cos 4x = \frac{x}{2}\int\cos 4x dx = \frac{x\sin 4x}{8}$. Therefore, the General solution is $y = A\cos 4x+B\sin 4x+\frac{x}{8}\sin 4x$.
Question 63
Laplace transform of $t²+2t+3$ is
- A. $\frac{-2}{s³}-\frac{2}{s²}-\frac{3}{s}$
- B. $\frac{2}{s³}+\frac{2}{s²}-\frac{3}{s}$
- C. $\frac{2}{s³}+\frac{2}{s²}+\frac{3}{s}$
- D. $\frac{-2}{s³}+\frac{2}{s²}-\frac{3}{s}$
Answer: C. $\frac{2}{s³}+\frac{2}{s²}+\frac{3}{s}$
Explanation: Using the standard formula for Laplace transform: $L\{t^n\} = \frac{n!}{s^{n+1}}$. For $t²+2t+3$, $L\{t²+2t+3\} = \frac{2!}{s³}+\frac{2 \cdot 1!}{s²}+\frac{3}{s} = \frac{2}{s³}+\frac{2}{s²}+\frac{3}{s}$.
Question 64
Equation of a straight line passing through the point (-1, 2) and making equal intercepts on the axes is
- A. $x-y=1$
- B. $x-2y=1$
- C. $x+y=1$
- D. $x-y=2$
Answer: C. $x+y=1$
Explanation: Equation of line with equal intercepts 'a' is $x/a + y/a = 1 \Rightarrow x+y=a$. Since it passes through (-1, 2), substituting gives $-1+2=a \Rightarrow a=1$. Thus, the equation is $x+y=1$.
Question 65
A bag contains eight white and six red marbles. The probability of drawing two marbles of same colour is
- A. $\frac{8c_2 \cdot 6c_2}{14c_2}$
- B. $\frac{8c_2}{14c_2}+\frac{6c_2}{14c_2}$
- C. $\frac{8c_2 \cdot 6c_2}{14c_2 \cdot 14c_2}$
- D. $\frac{8c_2}{14c_2}+\frac{6c_2}{12c_2}$
Answer: B. $\frac{8c_2}{14c_2}+\frac{6c_2}{14c_2}$
Explanation: The probability of drawing two white marbles is $\frac{8c_2}{14c_2}$. The probability of drawing two red marbles is $\frac{6c_2}{14c_2}$. They are mutually exclusive, so Total probability = $\frac{8c_2}{14c_2} + \frac{6c_2}{14c_2}$.
Question 66
The Algebraic multiplicity of the matrix $A=\begin{vmatrix}0&1&0\\0&0&1\\1&-3&3\end{vmatrix}$ is
Answer: A. 1
Explanation: Determinant of $A = 0 - 1(0-1) + 0 = 1$.
Question 67
The impedance of an inductive reactance varies
- A. Linearly with frequency
- B. Parabolically with frequency
- C. Exponentially with frequency
- D. Linearly with frequency in an increasing manner
Answer: A. Linearly with frequency
Explanation: Inductive reactance is given by $X_L = 2\pi f L$. Since $X_L \propto f$, the impedance varies linearly with frequency.
Question 68
Two resistance $R_1$ and $R_2$ give combined resistance of 4.5 ohms when in series and 1 ohm when in parallel. The resistances are
- A. 3 ohms and 6 ohms
- B. 3 ohms and 9 ohms
- C. 1.5 ohms and 3 ohms
- D. 1.5 ohms and 0.5 ohms
Answer: C. 1.5 ohms and 3 ohms
Explanation: $R_1+R_2=4.5$ and $\frac{R_1 R_2}{R_1+R_2}=1 \Rightarrow R_1 R_2=4.5$. Using the identity $(R_1-R_2)^2=(R_1+R_2)^2-4R_1 R_2 = (4.5)^2-4(4.5) = 20.25-18 = 2.25$. So, $R_1-R_2=1.5$. Solving $R_1+R_2=4.5$ and $R_1-R_2=1.5$ gives $R_1=3~\Omega$ and $R_2=1.5~\Omega$.
Question 69
Which of the following bulbs will have the least resistance?
- A. 220 V, 60 W
- B. 220 V, 100 W
- C. 115 V, 60 W
- D. 115 V, 100 W
Answer: D. 115 V, 100 W
Explanation: $R = \frac{V²}{P}$. \n$R_1 = \frac{220^2}{60} = 806.6~\Omega$. \n$R_2 = \frac{220^2}{100} = 484~\Omega$. \n$R_3 = \frac{115^2}{60} = 220.4~\Omega$. \n$R_4 = \frac{115^2}{100} = 132.25~\Omega$. \nThe bulb with 115 V, 100 W has the least resistance.
Question 70
A resistance of 5 ohm is further drawn so that its length becomes double. Its resistance now is
- A. 5 ohms
- B. 7.5 ohms
- C. 10 ohms
- D. 20 ohms
Answer: D. 20 ohms
Explanation: When a wire is drawn to double its length, its new length $l' = 2l$. Because the volume stays constant, its new cross-sectional area becomes $A' = A/2$. New resistance $R' = \rho \frac{l'}{A'} = \rho \frac{2l}{A/2} = 4 \rho \frac{l}{A} = 4R$. Therefore, $R' = 4 \times 5 = 20~\Omega$.
Question 71
The power rating of a 470 ohm resistor carrying a current of 40 mA should be
- A. 1/4 W
- B. 1/2 W
- C. 2 W
- D. 1 W
Answer: D. 1 W
Explanation: $P = I^2R = (40\times 10^{-3})^2 \times 470 = 0.752$ watt. To safely handle this without burning out, the next standard power rating of 1 Watt should be used.
Question 72
Equivalent Resistance between X and Y is \n\n[Figure needs to be uploaded later]
- A. 75 $\Omega$
- B. 50 $\Omega$
- C. 275 $\Omega$
- D. None of these
Answer: A. 75 $\Omega$
Explanation: [Figure needs to be uploaded later]\nFirst the rightmost two resistors 50 $\Omega$ and 25 $\Omega$ are in series, resulting in $50+25=75~\Omega$. This makes three 75 $\Omega$ resistors in parallel. $\frac{1}{R'} = \frac{1}{75}+\frac{1}{75}+\frac{1}{75} = \frac{3}{75} \Rightarrow R' = 25~\Omega$. Finally, $R_{eq} = 50 + 25 = 75~\Omega$.
Question 73
The open-circuit emf of a storage cell is 2.2 volts. The terminal voltage measured when the current is 12 A is found to be 1.98 volts. The internal resistance of the cell is
- A. 0.00183 ohm
- B. 0.0183 ohm
- C. 0.183 ohm
- D. 1.83 ohm
Answer: B. 0.0183 ohm
Explanation: Internal voltage drop $= E - V = 2.2 - 1.98 = 0.22$ V. Internal resistance $r = \frac{\text{Voltage Drop}}{I} = \frac{0.22}{12} = 0.0183~\Omega$.
Question 74
A capacitor passes a current of 12.6 mA when supplied with 20 V ac with a frequency of 1 kHz. The capacitance of the capacitor is
- A. 0.1 $\mu$F
- B. 0.1 pF
- C. 1 $\mu$F
- D. 1 F
Answer: A. 0.1 $\mu$F
Explanation: $X_c = \frac{1}{\omega c}$ and $V = I X_c = \frac{I}{\omega c}$. $c = \frac{I}{2\pi f V} = \frac{12.6\times 10^{-3}}{2\pi \times 1\times 10^3 \times 20} = 0.1~\mu$F.
Question 75
The system response can be tested better with
- A. Sinusoidal input signal
- B. Unit impulse input signal
- C. Ramp input signal
- D. Exponentially decaying signal
Answer: B. Unit impulse input signal
Explanation: A unit impulse input signal contains all frequencies uniformly, making it theoretically the best input to find the complete frequency response (transfer function) of a linear time-invariant system.
Question 76
In an ideal op-amp the output impedance is
- A. 50 ohm
- B. 100 ohm
- C. infinite
- D. zero
Answer: D. zero
Explanation: An ideal operational amplifier is characterized by having infinite input impedance and zero output impedance.
Question 77
What will be dB gain for an increase of power level from 13 to 26 W
Answer: D. 3
Explanation: $Gain_{dB} = 10 \log_{10}(\frac{P_{out}}{P_{in}}) = 10 \log_{10}(\frac{26}{13}) = 10 \log_{10}(2) \approx 3$ dB.
Question 78
The oscillator with the best frequency stability and accuracy is
- A. Hartley oscillator
- B. Colpitts Oscillator
- C. Tickler feedback oscillator
- D. Crystal controlled oscillator
Answer: D. Crystal controlled oscillator
Explanation: Crystal oscillators utilize a piezoelectric crystal which has an exceptionally high Q-factor. This results in highly stable and accurate resonant frequencies compared to standard LC oscillators.
Question 79
The desirable properties of transformer core material are
- A. Low permeability and low hysteresis loss
- B. High permeability and high hysteresis loss
- C. High permeability and low hysteresis loss
- D. Low permeability and high hysteresis loss
Answer: C. High permeability and low hysteresis loss
Explanation: Transformer core materials should have high permeability to easily establish magnetic flux with minimal magnetizing current, and low hysteresis loss to reduce heat dissipation generated during alternating magnetic cycles.
Question 80
The quality factor of series R-L-C circuit will increase if
- A. R decreases
- B. R increases
- C. Voltage increases
- D. Voltage decreases
Answer: A. R decreases
Explanation: The quality factor $Q$ for a series R-L-C circuit is inversely proportional to resistance ($Q = \frac{1}{R}\sqrt{\frac{L}{C}}$). Thus, decreasing R increases the quality factor.