ISRO Electrical Engineering (EE) 2014 Question Paper & Solutions

Attempt the ISRO Electrical Engineering (EE) 2014 previous year paper in real CBT exam mode or practice mode with verified answers and explanations.

All ISRO Electrical Engineering (EE) papers

80 questions.

Question 1

A Meter has a full scale deflection of 90° at a current of 1A. The response of the meter is square law. Assuming spring control, the current for a deflection at 45° will be

  • A. 0.25
  • B. 0.50
  • C. 0.707
  • D. 0.67

Answer: C. 0.707

Explanation: Square-law meter: θ ∝ I², so I = √(45/90) = 0.707 A.

Question 2

A Single-phase Energy meter is operating on 230V, 50 Hz supply with a load of 20A for two hours at UPF. The meter makes 1380 revolutions in that period. The meter constant is

  • A. 695 rev/kWh
  • B. 150 rev/kWh
  • C. 0.15 rev/kWh
  • D. 1/150 rev/kWh

Answer: B. 150 rev/kWh

Explanation: Energy = 230×20×2 = 9.2 kWh; meter constant = 1380/9.2 = 150 rev/kWh.

Question 3

In case of power measurements by two wattmeter method in a balanced 3-phase system with pure inductive load

  • A. both wattmeters will indicates the same value but with opposite signs
  • B. both wattmeters will indicate zero
  • C. both the wattmeters will indicate the same value same sign
  • D. one wattmeter will indicate zero and the other will indicate some non-zero value

Answer: A. both wattmeters will indicates the same value but with opposite signs

Explanation: For a purely inductive load (φ = 90°) W1 = VI cos(30°−90°) = +0.5VI and W2 = VI cos(30°+90°) = −0.5VI: equal magnitudes, opposite signs.

Question 4

It is required to measure temperature in the range of 1300°C to 1500°C. The most suitable thermocouple to be used as transducer would be

  • A. Chromel - constantan
  • B. Iron-constantan
  • C. Chromel - alumel
  • D. Platinum-rhodium

Answer: D. Platinum-rhodium

Explanation: Platinum-rhodium thermocouples (type R/S/B) are used for 1300–1500 °C.

Question 5

Which dc motor will have highest percentage increase in input current for given percentage increase in torque

  • A. Series motor
  • B. shunt motor
  • C. cumulatively compound motor
  • D. separately excited motor

Answer: B. shunt motor

Explanation: Shunt motor: T ∝ I (flux constant), so the current rises in the same proportion as torque; in a series motor T ∝ I², so current rises less.

Question 6

In a three phase delta transformer, one phase burns up. The transformer will supply

  • A. 57.7% of its rating
  • B. zero output
  • C. 63% of its output rating
  • D. at full output rating

Answer: A. 57.7% of its rating

Explanation: With one winding removed, the open-delta (V-V) supplies 57.7 % of the original rating.

Question 7

In an auto transformer, power is transferred through

  • A. conduction process alone
  • B. induction process alone
  • C. both conduction and induction processes
  • D. mutual coupling

Answer: C. both conduction and induction processes

Explanation: Autotransformer transfers power partly by conduction and partly by transformer action (induction).

Question 8

Buchholz relay is a

  • A. voltage sensitive device
  • B. current sensitive device
  • C. frequency sensitive device
  • D. gas actuated device

Answer: D. gas actuated device

Explanation: Buchholz relay is gas (and oil-surge) actuated.

Question 9

In Scott connection, if the ratio of the main transformer is k, then the teaser transformer has transformation ratio of

  • A. 2k/√3
  • B. √3k /2
  • C. K / √3
  • D. K / 2

Answer: B. √3k /2

Explanation: Teaser turns are (√3/2) of main turns, so teaser ratio = (√3/2)k.

Question 10

With core type transformers, the limbs are stepped so as to

  • A. reduce the iron material and therefore iron loss
  • B. provide better cooling
  • C. reduce the conductor material and therefore I^2 R loss
  • D. provide more mechanical strength to the core

Answer: C. reduce the conductor material and therefore I^2 R loss

Explanation: Stepped (cruciform) limbs fill the circle better, reducing mean turn length and copper, hence I²R loss.

Question 11

In alternator, during hunting when the speed becomes super synchronous, the damper bars develop

  • A. reluctance torque
  • B. pseudo-stationary torque
  • C. eddy current torque
  • D. induction generator torque

Answer: D. induction generator torque

Explanation: Above synchronous speed the damper winding acts as an induction generator and produces a braking torque.

Question 12

It is never advisable to connect a stationary alternator to live bus-bar because it

  • A. is likely to run as a synchronous motor
  • B. will get short circuited
  • C. will decrease bus-bar voltage though momentarily
  • D. will disturbs generated emfs of other alternators connected in parallel

Answer: B. will get short circuited

Explanation: A stationary (unexcited, out-of-synchronism) alternator connected to live bus-bars sees a dead short circuit.

Question 13

Under no load condition, the angle between the induced voltage and the supply voltage in synchronous motor is

  • A. zero
  • B. 45°
  • C. 90°
  • D. 180°

Answer: A. zero

Explanation: At no load the rotor and stator fields are almost aligned: torque angle ≈ 0.

Question 14

Synchronous motors are not self starting because

  • A. Stator not used
  • B. Starting winding not provided
  • C. There is no slip
  • D. The direction of instantaneous torque on the rotor reverses after half cycle

Answer: D. The direction of instantaneous torque on the rotor reverses after half cycle

Explanation: The torque on the rotor reverses every half cycle (averages to zero) because the rotor cannot follow the rotating field from standstill.

Question 15

A three phase induction motor running at 1440 rpm on rated supply will run at the following rpm when fuse of one phase gets burnt

  • A. 1440
  • B. 1380
  • C. 1500
  • D. zero

Answer: B. 1380

Explanation: After single-phasing the motor runs on one phase with slightly lower speed (about 1380 rpm).

Question 16

Dispersion coefficient σ is the ratio of

  • A. magnetizing current to supply voltage
  • B. open circuit voltage to short circuit current for the same excitement
  • C. magnetizing current to ideal short circuit current
  • D. short circuit current to magnetizing current

Answer: C. magnetizing current to ideal short circuit current

Explanation: Heyland's leakage (dispersion) coefficient σ = Im/Isc,ideal (magnetising current to ideal short-circuit current).

Question 17

In the circle diagram for a 3-phase induction motor, the diameter of the circle is determined by

  • A. total stator current
  • B. exciting current
  • C. rotor current
  • D. rotor current referred to stator

Answer: D. rotor current referred to stator

Explanation: Circle diameter = V/X (ideal short-circuit current), the rotor current referred to the stator.

Question 18

While conducting short-circuit test on a transformer the following side is short circuited

  • A. High voltage side
  • B. low voltage side
  • C. primary side
  • D. secondary side

Answer: B. low voltage side

Explanation: Short-circuit test: LV side shorted, reduced voltage applied to HV side (so currents are small).

Question 19

Thrust developed by a linear induction motor depends on

  • A. synchronous speed
  • B. rotor input
  • C. rotor input and synchronous speed
  • D. number of poles

Answer: C. rotor input and synchronous speed

Explanation: Thrust F = P2/vs, which depends on rotor input and synchronous speed.

Question 20

The crawling in an induction motor is caused by

  • A. improper design of machine
  • B. low voltage supply
  • C. high loads
  • D. harmonics developed in the motor

Answer: D. harmonics developed in the motor

Explanation: Crawling is due to space harmonics (7th harmonic).

Question 21

The main disadvantages of using short pitch winding in alternators is that it

  • A. reduces harmonics in the generated voltage
  • B. reduces the total voltage around the armature coils
  • C. produces asymmetry in the three phase windings
  • D. Increases Cu of end connections.

Answer: B. reduces the total voltage around the armature coils

Explanation: Short pitching reduces the total emf (pitch factor < 1), the main drawback.

Question 22

Armature reaction in an alternator mainly affects

  • A. rotor speed
  • B. terminal voltage per phase
  • C. frequency of armature current
  • D. generated voltage per phase

Answer: B. terminal voltage per phase

Explanation: Armature reaction mainly alters the terminal voltage per phase (via the resultant flux).

Question 23

A universal motor is one which

  • A. is available universally
  • B. can be marketed internationally
  • C. can be operated either on dc or ac supply
  • D. runs dangerously high speed on no load

Answer: C. can be operated either on dc or ac supply

Explanation: A universal motor (series commutator motor) runs on both AC and DC.

Question 24

If the field of a synchronous motor is under excited, the power factor will be

  • A. lagging
  • B. leading
  • C. Unity
  • D. more than unity

Answer: A. lagging

Explanation: Under-excited synchronous motor draws lagging current.

Question 25

Synchronous capacitor is

  • A. An over excited synchronous motor running without mechanical load
  • B. An over excited synchronous motor driving mechanical load
  • C. An ordinary static capacitor bank
  • D. A rotating dynamic capacitor bank

Answer: A. An over excited synchronous motor running without mechanical load

Explanation: Synchronous condenser = over-excited synchronous motor running at no mechanical load.

Question 26

Two bulbs, one 250V, 100 W and second 250V, 25 W are connected in series and 440V AC, 50Hz is applied across the two bulbs. Which of the following will happen,

  • A. 100 W bulb glows bright compare to 25 W bulb
  • B. both 100 W bulb & 25 W bulb will glow normal
  • C. 25W bulb will burn-out
  • D. 25 W bulb glows bright compare to 100 W bulb

Answer: C. 25W bulb will burn-out

Explanation: R1 = 625 Ω, R2 = 2500 Ω; V across the 25 W bulb = 440×2500/3125 = 352 V > 250 V, so it burns out.

Question 27

A wave form shown as Input is applied across primary of a pulse transformer which has 1:1 turns ratio. The output on the secondary side will be as shown in the Figure---- [Figure description: The input is a periodic rectangular pulse train (square-ish wave switching between a low and a high level, with short high pulses and longer low intervals). Four candidate output waveforms are drawn below it. (A): a train of triangular/sawtooth-like peaks, each rising and falling back to the baseline, all above the baseline. (B): a rectangular pulse train similar to the input but with its levels shifted/inverted (a high level that drops to a low level for pulses), i.e. a square wave with the same shape and no differentiation. (C): a train of downward-pointing (inverted V) spikes hanging from a top baseline, i.e. only negative-going triangular spikes. (D): a train in which each cycle has a sharp downward spike followed by an upward triangular/decaying peak, i.e. alternating negative and positive spikes (differentiated-looking waveform with both polarities).]

  • A. Waveform (A): train of positive triangular/sawtooth peaks
  • B. Waveform (B): rectangular pulse train with shifted/inverted levels
  • C. Waveform (C): train of downward (negative) V-shaped spikes
  • D. Waveform (D): alternating downward spike and upward triangular peak each cycle

Answer: D. Waveform (D): alternating downward spike and upward triangular peak each cycle

Explanation: A transformer cannot pass the DC level; it differentiates the edges, giving alternating positive/negative spikes.

Question 28

The following circuit (shown in Figure) resonates at [Figure description: A series-parallel RLC circuit driven by an AC voltage source at the bottom. Going around the loop from the source: a 10 Ω resistor in series, which then connects to two parallel branches. The top branch consists of a 4 H inductor in series with a 1 F capacitor. The lower branch is a single 1 F capacitor. The two parallel branches rejoin and return to the source.]

  • A. all frequencies
  • B. 0.5 rad / sec
  • C. 5 rad / sec
  • D. 1 rad / sec

Answer: B. 0.5 rad / sec

Explanation: At ω = 1/√(LC) = 0.5 rad/s the top branch (4 H + 1 F) is a series resonance (short), so the input impedance is purely R = 10 Ω.

Question 29

The distribution system shown in Figure is to be protected by over current system of protection [Figure description: A 33 kV supply on the left feeds, in order along a horizontal line, circuit breakers/relay locations 1 and 2, then a bus junction, then breaker 3 and breaker 4, then a second 33 kV supply on the right. From the middle bus (between breakers 2 and 3) a vertical feeder runs down and goes through breaker 5 to a Load. So the system is a ring/double-end-fed line with two 33 kV sources at its two ends and a load tapped at the middle through breaker 5.] For proper fault discrimination directional over current relays will be required at locations

  • A. 1 and 4
  • B. 2 and 3
  • C. 1, 4 and 5
  • D. 2, 3 and 5

Answer: B. 2 and 3

Explanation: Directional relays are required at 2 and 3 (bus-side ends) so that each trips only for faults on its own section with power flowing from the other source.

Question 30

A 50 Hz bar primary CT has a secondary with 500 turns. The secondary supplies 5 A current into a purely resistive burden of 1 Ω. The phase angle between the primary and secondary current is

  • A. 4.6°
  • B. 85.4°
  • C. 94.6°
  • D. 175.4°

Answer: A. 4.6°

Explanation: Secondary AT = 500×5 = 2500; magnetising AT (200, in phase quadrature with the resistive-burden secondary current) gives δ = tan⁻¹(200/2500) = 4.6°.

Question 31

The moving coil in a dynamometer wattmeter is connected

  • A. in series with the fixed coil
  • B. in series with the load
  • C. across the supply
  • D. across the load

Answer: C. across the supply

Explanation: The moving (pressure) coil, in series with a high non-inductive resistance, is connected across the supply; the fixed coil carries the load current.

Question 32

For an unbalanced fault with paths for zero sequence currents, at the point of fault

  • A. the negative & zero sequence voltages are minimum
  • B. the negative sequence voltage in maximum & zero sequence voltage is minimum
  • C. the negative sequence voltage in minimum & zero sequence voltage is maximum
  • D. the negative & zero sequence voltages are maximum

Answer: D. the negative & zero sequence voltages are maximum

Explanation: At the fault point, the fault acts as the source of negative and zero sequence currents; hence negative and zero sequence voltages are maximum at the fault point and decrease towards the source/neutral.

Question 33

An ideal OPAMP is used to make an inverting amplifier. The two input terminals of the OPAMP are at the same potential because,

  • A. the two input terminals are directly shorted internally
  • B. the open loop gain of the OPAMP is infinity and CMRR is infinity
  • C. the input impedance of the OPAMP is infinity
  • D. slew rate is very high

Answer: B. the open loop gain of the OPAMP is infinity and CMRR is infinity

Explanation: Virtual short/ground concept: Since the open loop gain A → ∞ (and CMRR is infinite), the differential input voltage Vd = Vo/A = 0, so both input terminals are at the same potential.

Question 34

What is the "swamping" resistance which is connected in series with the working coil of a voltmeter to drastically reduce the error in measurement caused due to variation in temperature is made up of?

  • A. Constantan
  • B. Eureka
  • C. Manganin
  • D. Nichrome

Answer: C. Manganin

Explanation: Swamping resistance is made of Manganin, which has an extremely low temperature coefficient of resistance (α ≈ 0), minimising measurement error caused by temperature variation.

Question 35

If the poles of a system lie on the imaginary axis, the system will be:

  • A. Stable
  • B. Conditionally stable
  • C. Marginally stable
  • D. Unstable

Answer: D. Unstable

Explanation: In control systems, poles lying on the imaginary axis yield sustained oscillations (marginal stability for simple poles), but any repeated poles make the system unstable. Officially keyed as unstable.

Question 36

Which one of the following is the most likely reason for large overshoot in a control system

  • A. High gain in a system
  • B. Presence of dead time delay in a system
  • C. High positive correcting torque
  • D. High retarding torque

Answer: C. High positive correcting torque

Explanation: A high positive correcting torque relative to damping (retarding torque) accelerates the system too rapidly, causing the output to overshoot the setpoint before it can be decelerated.

Question 37

Which of the following correctly represents the sequence of operations of isolator circuit breaker and earthing switch while opening a circuit

  • A. Open circuit breaker - open isolator - close earthing switch
  • B. Open isolator - close circuit breaker - open earthing switch
  • C. Close earthing switch - open circuit breaker open isolator
  • D. Close circuit breaker - close isolator - open earthing switch.

Answer: A. Open circuit breaker - open isolator - close earthing switch

Explanation: While opening a circuit: first open the circuit breaker (interrupter of load/fault current), then open the isolator (under no-load), and finally close the earthing switch (to safely discharge trapped charges).

Question 38

A comparator circuit is used to

  • A. Mark the instant when an arbitrary waveform attains some reference level
  • B. Mark the-instant when the input voltage becomes constant
  • C. Switch ON and OFF a circuit alternately at a particular rate
  • D. Switch OFF a circuit when output becomes zero

Answer: A. Mark the instant when an arbitrary waveform attains some reference level

Explanation: A comparator compares an input waveform against a reference level and switches its output state at the precise instant the input reaches or crosses that reference level.

Question 39

Out of the following methods of heating the one which is independent of supply frequency is

  • A. electric arc heating
  • B. induction heating
  • C. electric resistance
  • D. dielectric heating

Answer: C. electric resistance

Explanation: Electric resistance heating depends purely on Joule heating (I²R), which is independent of supply frequency (works identically on DC or AC). Dielectric and induction heating depend on frequency.

Question 40

An SCR triggered by current pulse applied to gate-cathode can be turned OFF

  • A. by applying a pulse to cathode
  • B. by applying a pulse to the anode
  • C. by applying another pulse of opposite polarity to the gate-cathode
  • D. by reversing the polarity of the anode and cathode voltage

Answer: D. by reversing the polarity of the anode and cathode voltage

Explanation: An SCR in the ON state cannot be turned off by gate control alone; it can be turned OFF by natural or forced commutation, which reverses the polarity of the anode-cathode voltage or drops anode current below holding current.

Question 41

In the loaded-frequency control system with tree governor action, the increase in load demand under steady condition is met,

  • A. only by decrease of load demand due to drop in system frequency
  • B. only by increased generation due to opening of steam valve
  • C. partly by increased generation and partly by decrease of load demand
  • D. partly by increased generation and partly by increased generator excitation

Answer: B. only by increased generation due to opening of steam valve

Explanation: Under steady conditions with free governor action, any frequency/speed drop actuates the governor to open the turbine steam/water valve, meeting the load demand entirely through increased generation.

Question 42

Power transmission lines are transposed to reduce

  • A. skin effect
  • B. Ferranti effect
  • C. Transmission loss
  • D. Interference with neighboring communication lines

Answer: D. Interference with neighboring communication lines

Explanation: Transposition of transmission conductors balances mutual inductances and capacitances among phases, thereby reducing inductive interference with neighboring parallel telecommunication lines.

Question 43

The current carrying capacity of cables in DC is more than that in AC mainly due to

  • A. Absence of harmonics
  • B. non -existence of any stability limit
  • C. smaller dielectric loss
  • D. absence of ripple

Answer: C. smaller dielectric loss

Explanation: In DC, there is absence of dielectric loss (ωCV² = 0), absence of skin effect (uniform current distribution), and no sheath losses, allowing a cable to carry higher current for the same permissible temperature rise.

Question 44

The fact that a conductor carries more current on the surface as compared to core, is known as

  • A. skin effect
  • B. corona
  • C. permeability
  • D. unsymmetrical fault

Answer: A. skin effect

Explanation: Skin effect is the tendency of alternating electric current (AC) to distribute non-uniformly within a conductor such that current density is largest near the surface and decreases towards the core.

Question 45

In Gauss-Sidel load flow method, the number of iterations may be reduced if the correction in voltage at each bus is multiplied by,

  • A. Gauss constant
  • B. Acceleration factor
  • C. Blocking factor
  • D. Lagrange multiplier

Answer: B. Acceleration factor

Explanation: In the Gauss-Seidel power flow method, multiplying the calculated bus voltage correction by an acceleration factor (typically 1.4 to 1.6) speeds up the convergence rate and reduces total iterations.

Question 46

For a fault in a power system, the term critical clearing time is related to,

  • A. Transient stability limit
  • B. Reactive power limit
  • C. Short circuit current limit
  • D. Steady state stability limit

Answer: A. Transient stability limit

Explanation: Critical clearing time is the maximum allowable time duration for which a fault can remain on the system before circuit breakers clear it without loss of synchronism, defining the transient stability limit.

Question 47

The rate of rise of re-striking voltage (RRRV) is dependent upon,

  • A. Resistance of the system only
  • B. Inductance of the system only
  • C. capacitance of the system only
  • D. Inductance and capacitance of the system

Answer: D. Inductance and capacitance of the system

Explanation: The Rate of Rise of Restriking Voltage (RRRV) depends on natural oscillation frequency ωn = 1/√(LC) and peak restriking voltage, so it is governed by both system inductance (L) and capacitance (C): RRRV_max = Vm/√(LC).

Question 48

One of the main advantages of Swinburne's test is that it,

  • A. is applicable both to shunt and compound motors
  • B. Needs one running test
  • C. is very economical and convenient
  • D. ignores any change in iron loss

Answer: C. is very economical and convenient

Explanation: Swinburne's test is a no-load test that draws only the no-load losses from the supply, making it an extremely economical and convenient method to predetermine efficiency without actually loading large machines.

Question 49

A 6 pole, 50 Hz, 3-Φ induction motor is running at 950 rpm and has rotor Cu loss of 5kW. Its rotor input is ______ kW

  • A. 100
  • B. 10
  • C. 95
  • D. 5.3

Answer: A. 100

Explanation: Ns = 120×50/6 = 1000 rpm; Slip s = (1000 − 950)/1000 = 0.05. Rotor Cu loss = s × Rotor input ⇒ Rotor input = 5 kW / 0.05 = 100 kW.

Question 50

In the shaded pole squirrel cage induction motor the flux in the shaded part always

  • A. Leads the flux in the un-shaded pole segment
  • B. lags the flux in the un-shaded pole segment
  • C. is in out of phase with the flux in the un-shaded pole segment
  • D. is in phase with the flux in the un-shaded pole segment

Answer: B. lags the flux in the un-shaded pole segment

Explanation: By Lenz's law, induced currents in the shading coil oppose any change in flux; hence flux in the shaded portion lags behind the flux in the unshaded segment, producing a shifting magnetic field.

Question 51

A saturable core reactor is basically a

  • A. variable resistor
  • B. step down transformer
  • C. thermal relay
  • D. variable impedance

Answer: D. variable impedance

Explanation: A saturable-core reactor (transductor) uses DC control winding excitation to vary the magnetic saturation of the iron core, functioning effectively as a variable AC impedance.

Question 52

If a body reflects entire radiation incident on it then it is known as,

  • A. Black body
  • B. Grey body
  • C. White body
  • D. Transparent body

Answer: C. White body

Explanation: A body that reflects 100% of the radiant energy falling upon it (reflectivity ρ = 1) is called a white body; a body that absorbs all incident radiation (absorptivity α = 1) is a black body.

Question 53

The illumination is directly proportional to the cosine of the angle made by the normal to the illuminated surface with the direction of the incident flux. Above statement is associated with

  • A. Planck's law
  • B. Macbeth's law of illumination
  • C. Bunsen's law of illumination
  • D. Lambert's cosine law.

Answer: D. Lambert's cosine law.

Explanation: Lambert's cosine law states that illumination on any surface is directly proportional to the cosine of the angle between the normal to the surface and the direction of incident light rays: E = (I/r²) cos θ.

Question 54

The concentration of minority carriers in an extrinsic semiconductor under equilibrium is

  • A. Directly proportional to the doping concentration
  • B. Inversely proportional to the doping concentration
  • C. Directly proportional to the intrinsic concentration
  • D. Inversely proportional to the intrinsic concentration

Answer: B. Inversely proportional to the doping concentration

Explanation: By the law of mass action (np = ni²), the minority carrier concentration in an extrinsic semiconductor at equilibrium is inversely proportional to the majority doping concentration (e.g. p = ni²/Nd).

Question 55

Reactance relay is normally preferred for protection against

  • A. Over load currents only
  • B. Phase faults only
  • C. Earth faults only
  • D. High voltage protection only

Answer: C. Earth faults only

Explanation: Reactance relays measure only reactance (X) and are unaffected by fault arc resistance (R), making them the preferred choice for earth fault protection on short lines where arc resistance is relatively large.

Question 56

If a combination of HRC fuse and circuit breaker is used, the C.B. operates for

  • A. Low overload currents
  • B. short circuit current
  • C. Under all abnormal current
  • D. The combination is never used in practice

Answer: A. Low overload currents

Explanation: In a coordinated protection scheme, the circuit breaker handles normal switching duties and clears low overload currents, whereas high-speed HRC fuses take over to isolate heavy short-circuit fault currents.

Question 57

Lightning arrestor should be located

  • A. away from the circuit breaker
  • B. near the circuit breaker
  • C. near the transformer
  • D. away from the transformer

Answer: C. near the transformer

Explanation: Lightning arresters are placed as close as possible to the transformer terminals to minimize the traveling wave reflection distance and protect the most critical and expensive station equipment.

Question 58

Ferranti effect on long overhead lines is experienced when it is

  • A. Lightly loaded
  • B. On full load at unity p. f.
  • C. On full load at 0.8 p. f. lag
  • D. overloaded condition

Answer: A. Lightly loaded

Explanation: Ferranti effect occurs on long unloaded or lightly loaded high-voltage transmission lines, where the capacitive charging current flowing through line inductance causes receiving-end voltage to exceed sending-end voltage.

Question 59

In a nuclear power station, moderator is used to,

  • A. absorb neutrons
  • B. reduce the speed of neutrons
  • C. accelerate the speed of neutrons
  • D. stop chain reactions

Answer: B. reduce the speed of neutrons

Explanation: A moderator (such as heavy water, light water, or graphite) is used in a nuclear reactor to slow down fast neutrons from fission to thermal velocities suitable for sustaining the chain reaction.

Question 60

What is the output waveform when Vin is given square wave? [Figure description: An ideal op-amp (U1, IDEAL_OPAMP) circuit. Vin is connected through a resistor R1 to the inverting (-) input (pin 2). The non-inverting (+) input (pin 1) is connected to ground. A capacitor C1 is connected in the feedback path between the op-amp output (pin 3, Vout) and the inverting input. There is no feedback resistor, so this is an inverting op-amp integrator.]

  • A. Square wave
  • B. Sine wave
  • C. triangle wave
  • D. Saw tooth wave

Answer: C. triangle wave

Explanation: An ideal inverting op-amp integrator integrates the constant positive and negative voltage levels of an input square wave into linear ramps of alternating slopes, yielding a triangular output waveform.

Question 61

A pony motor is used for the starting of which of the following motor

  • A. Squirrel cage Induction motor
  • B. Schrage Motor
  • C. Synchronous Motor
  • D. Hysteresis Motor

Answer: C. Synchronous Motor

Explanation: Synchronous motors cannot start on their own due to rotor inertia; a small induction motor (pony motor) is coupled to spin the rotor up to near-synchronous speed before locking into synchronism.

Question 62

A PWM switching scheme is used with three phase inverter to

  • A. reduce low order harmonics and increase high order harmonics
  • B. minimize the load on the DC side.
  • C. increase the life of the batteries.
  • D. reduce the total harmonic distortion with modest filtering

Answer: A. reduce low order harmonics and increase high order harmonics

Explanation: PWM switching techniques push harmonic energy to high frequencies (around carrier frequency and its sidebands) while eliminating or reducing low-order harmonics, greatly simplifying filtering requirements.

Question 63

The earth wire should not be thinner than a

  • A. 20 SWG wire
  • B. 16 SWG wire
  • C. 10 SWG wire
  • D. 8 SWG wire

Answer: D. 8 SWG wire

Explanation: Under standard Indian Electricity (IE) rules, earth continuity conductors and earth lead wires must not be smaller/thinner than No. 8 SWG (Standard Wire Gauge).

Question 64

The ripple factor of a full-wave rectifier circuit compared to that of a half wave rectifier circuit without filter is

  • A. half of that for a half wave rectifier
  • B. less than half that for a half-wave rectifier circuit
  • C. equal to that of a half wave rectifier
  • D. more than half that for a half-wave rectifier circuit

Answer: B. less than half that for a half-wave rectifier circuit

Explanation: The ripple factor of an unfiltered half-wave rectifier is 1.21, whereas for a full-wave rectifier it is 0.482. Since 0.482 < (1.21/2 = 0.605), it is less than half that of a half-wave rectifier.

Question 65

In a highly inductive circuit , a small capacitance is added in series. Then the angle between applied voltage and resultant current will be

  • A. increase
  • B. decrease
  • C. remains absolutely unaltered
  • D. alter insignificantly

Answer: B. decrease

Explanation: In a highly inductive circuit, adding series capacitance introduces capacitive reactance Xc that opposes inductive reactance (X_net = XL − Xc < XL). Since tan φ = X_net/R, the phase angle φ decreases.

Question 66

The inertia constant of the two machines which are not swinging together are M1 and M2. The equivalent inertia constant of the system is:

  • A. M1-M2
  • B. M1+M2
  • C. M1M2/(M1+M2)
  • D. M1M2/(M1-M2)

Answer: C. M1M2/(M1+M2)

Explanation: For two non-coherent machines swinging against each other, the equivalent system inertia constant is given by their parallel combination: M_eq = (M1 × M2) / (M1 + M2).

Question 67

A voltage source inverter is used to control the speed of a three-phase, 50 Hz squirrel cage induction motor. Its slip for rated torque is 4%. The flux is maintained at rated value. If the stator resistance and rotational losses are neglected, then the impressed voltage to obtain twice the rated torque at starting should be

  • A. 10 Hz
  • B. 5Hz
  • C. 2 Hz
  • D. 4 Hz

Answer: D. 4 Hz

Explanation: At rated condition, slip frequency fs = s × f = 0.04 × 50 = 2 Hz. With constant V/f ratio, torque is proportional to slip frequency. To develop twice rated torque at starting (where rotor speed = 0, so f_slip = f_supply), supply frequency must be 2 × 2 Hz = 4 Hz.

Question 68

The charge on an electron is known to be 1.6 x 10^-19 coulomb. In a circuit the current flowing is 1 A. How many electrons will be flowing through the circuit in a second?

  • A. 1.6 x 10^19
  • B. 1.6 x 10^-19
  • C. 0.625 x 10^19
  • D. 0.625 x 10^12.

Answer: C. 0.625 x 10^19

Explanation: I = q/t = n·e/t. For I = 1 A and t = 1 s: n = 1 / (1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹) = 0.625 × 10¹⁹ electrons per second.

Question 69

A thermal protection switch is used to provide protection against:

  • A. Over load
  • B. Temperature
  • C. Short circuit
  • D. Over voltage

Answer: A. Over load

Explanation: A thermal protection switch (thermal overload relay) uses a bimetallic strip that deflects due to the I²R heating of excessive continuous current, protecting equipment against prolonged overloads.

Question 70

With V/F ratio keeping constant, if the frequency is decreased below the base value and the voltage is decreased proportionally, is fed to an Induction motor, its starting torque and the peak torque for variable frequency & voltages will be

  • A. both starting torque and peak torque will remain constant
  • B. Starting torque will increase and the peak torque remains constant
  • C. starting torque will remain constant and peak torque will vary and the
  • D. both starting torque and peak torque will decrease

Answer: B. Starting torque will increase and the peak torque remains constant

Explanation: With constant V/f ratio, the maximum (breakdown) torque remains constant, while the starting torque is inversely proportional to supply frequency (Tst ∝ 1/f); hence starting torque increases as frequency decreases.

Question 71

A function f from the set of natural numbers to integers defined by f(n) = (n-1)/2 when n is odd; f(n) = -n/2 when n is even, is

  • A. one-one and but not on to
  • B. onto but not one-one
  • C. one-one and onto both
  • D. neither one-one nor onto

Answer: C. one-one and onto both

Explanation: Odd natural numbers {1, 3, 5, ...} map to non-negative integers {0, 1, 2, ...} and even natural numbers {2, 4, 6, ...} map to negative integers {-1, -2, -3, ...}. Each integer has a unique preimage in N, making f both one-one and onto.

Question 72

If the sum of the roots of the quadratic equation ax^2 + bx + c = 0 is equal to the sum of the squares of their reciprocals, then a/c, b/a and c/b are in

  • A. arithmetic progression
  • B. geometric progression
  • C. arithmetic-geometric-progression
  • D. harmonic progression

Answer: D. harmonic progression

Explanation: For ax² + bx + c = 0, α+β = −b/a and αβ = c/a. Sum of squares of reciprocals: 1/α² + 1/β² = (b²−2ac)/c². Equating to α+β gives −b/a = b²/c² − 2a/c ⇒ 2a/c = b²/c² + b/a. Simplifying shows c/a, a/b, b/c are in AP, so their reciprocals a/c, b/a, c/b are in harmonic progression (HP).

Question 73

If ((1+i)/(1-i))^x = 1, then

  • A. x = 2n + 1, where n is any positive integer
  • B. x = 2n, where n is any positive integer
  • C. x = 4n + 1, where n is any positive integer
  • D. x = 4n, where n is any positive integer

Answer: D. x = 4n, where n is any positive integer

Explanation: (1+i)/(1-i) = (1+i)² / 2 = 2i/2 = i. The equation becomes i^x = 1. Since i⁴ = 1, i^x = 1 is satisfied when x is a multiple of 4, i.e., x = 4n for any positive integer n.

Question 74

If a vertex of a triangle is (1, 1) and the mid-points of two sides through this vertex are (-1, 2) and (3, 2), then the centroid of the triangle is

  • A. (-1, 7/3)
  • B. (-1/3, 7/3)
  • C. (1, 7/3)
  • D. (1/3, 7/3)

Answer: C. (1, 7/3)

Explanation: Let vertex A = (1, 1). Midpoint of AB = (-1, 2) ⇒ B = (2(-1)−1, 2(2)−1) = (-3, 3). Midpoint of AC = (3, 2) ⇒ C = (2(3)−1, 2(2)−1) = (5, 3). Centroid G = ((1 − 3 + 5)/3, (1 + 3 + 3)/3) = (3/3, 7/3) = (1, 7/3).

Question 75

Let A = [[0, 0, -1], [0, -1, 0], [-1, 0, 0]] (3x3 matrix with rows (0,0,-1), (0,-1,0), (-1,0,0)). The only correct statement about the matrix A is

  • A. A is a zero matrix
  • B. A^2 = I
  • C. A^-1 does not exist
  • D. A = (-1)I, where I is a unit matrix

Answer: B. A^2 = I

Explanation: Multiplying the 3×3 matrix A by itself: row 1 gives [0, 0, 1], row 2 gives [0, 1, 0], row 3 gives [1, 0, 0]. Hence A² = I (A is an involutory matrix).

Question 76

If one root of the equation x^2 + px + 12 = 0 is 4, while the equation x^2 + px + q = 0 has equal roots, then the value of 'q' is

  • A. 49/4
  • B. 4
  • C. 3
  • D. 12

Answer: A. 49/4

Explanation: Since 4 is a root of x² + px + 12 = 0: 4² + 4p + 12 = 0 ⇒ 4p = −28 ⇒ p = −7. For x² − 7x + q = 0 to have equal roots, discriminant D = (−7)² − 4(1)(q) = 0 ⇒ 49 − 4q = 0 ⇒ q = 49/4.

Question 77

A person standing on the bank of a river observes that the angle of elevation of the top of a tree on the opposite bank of the river is 60° and when he retires 40 meter away from the tree the angle of elevation becomes 30°. The breadth of the river is

  • A. 60 m
  • B. 30 m
  • C. 40 m
  • D. 20 m

Answer: D. 20 m

Explanation: Let river breadth be d and tree height be h. tan 60° = h/d = √3 ⇒ h = d√3. At distance d+40: tan 30° = h/(d+40) = 1/√3 ⇒ h√3 = d+40. Substituting h: 3d = d + 40 ⇒ 2d = 40 ⇒ d = 20 m.

Question 78

A particle moves towards east from a point A to a point B at the rate of 4 km/h and then towards north from B to C at the rate of 5 km/h. If AB = 12 km and BC = 5 km, then its average speed for its journey from A to C and resultant average velocity direct from A to C are respectively

  • A. 17/4 km/h and 13/4 km/h
  • B. 13/4 km/h and 17/4 km/h
  • C. 17/9 km/h and 13/9 km/h
  • D. 13/9 km/h and 17/9 km/h

Answer: A. 17/4 km/h and 13/4 km/h

Explanation: Time for AB = 12/4 = 3 h; time for BC = 5/5 = 1 h; total time = 4 h. Total path length = 12 + 5 = 17 km ⇒ Average speed = 17/4 km/h. Net displacement AC = √(12² + 5²) = 13 km ⇒ Magnitude of average velocity = 13/4 km/h.

Question 79

If tan θ = 8 / 15 and θ is acute, then cosec θ

  • A. 8 / 17
  • B. 8 / 15
  • C. 17 / 8
  • D. 17 / 15

Answer: C. 17 / 8

Explanation: In a right triangle with acute angle θ, tan θ = 8/15 (opposite = 8, adjacent = 15). Hypotenuse = √(8² + 15²) = √289 = 17. Therefore cosec θ = hypotenuse / opposite = 17/8.

Question 80

A student is to answer 10 out of 13 questions in an examination such that he must choose at least 4 from the first five questions. The number of choices available to him is

  • A. 140
  • B. 196
  • C. 280
  • D. 346

Answer: B. 196

Explanation: Number of questions to choose = 10 out of 13 with at least 4 from first 5: Case 1: 4 from first 5 and 6 from remaining 8: C(5,4) × C(8,6) = 5 × 28 = 140. Case 2: 5 from first 5 and 5 from remaining 8: C(5,5) × C(8,5) = 1 × 56 = 56. Total choices = 140 + 56 = 196.