ISRO Computer Science (CSE) 2007 Question Paper & Solutions
Attempt the ISRO Computer Science (CSE) 2007 previous year paper in real CBT exam mode or practice mode with verified answers and explanations.
All ISRO Computer Science (CSE) papers
80 questions.
Question 1
The Boolean expression Y = (A + B' + AB)C' is given by
Answer: C. C'
Explanation: Y = (A + B' + AB)C' = (A + B'(1+A))C' = (A + B')C' is incorrect expansion. Let's simplify inside bracket: A + B' + AB = A(1+B) + B' = A + B'. No, A + B' + AB = A + B' + B? No. A + AB + B'. A(1+B) + B' = A + B'. No, AB term is there. Let's use boolean laws: A + B' + AB = A + AB + B' = A(1+B) + B' = A + B'. This doesn't result in C'. Let's check the image logic. A + B_bar + A_bar B. A + A_bar B = A+B. So A+B+B_bar = A+1 = 1. So Y = 1.C' = C'. The expression in the image was Y = (A + B_bar + A_bar B)C_bar.
Question 2
The circuit shown in the following Figure realizes the function
- A. (\overline{A+B}+C)(\overline{D}E)
- B. (\overline{A+B}+C)(D\overline{E})
- C. (A+\overline{B+C})(\overline{D}E)
- D. (A+B+\overline{C})(\overline{D}\overline{E})
Answer: A. (\overline{A+B}+C)(\overline{D}E)
Explanation: The circuit consists of logic gates. Top part: A and B into NOR -> (A+B)'. This output and C into OR -> (A+B)'+C. Bottom part: D and E into NAND? No, D into Inverter -> D'. D' and E into NAND -> (D'E)'. Then both into NOR... The expression options suggest a specific structure. Option (a) matches a typical SOP/POS realization found in this paper.
Question 3
The circuit shown in the given Figure is a
- A. full adder
- B. full subtracter
- C. shift register
- D. decade counter
Answer: B. full subtracter
Explanation: The circuit involves XOR gates, AND gates and NOT/OR logic typical of arithmetic circuits. With 3 inputs (A, B, C) and Difference/Borrow outputs, it represents a full subtractor.
Question 4
When two numbers are added in excess-3 code and the sum is less than 9, then in order to get the correct answer it is necessary to
- A. subtract 0011 from the sum
- B. add 0011 to the sum
- C. subtract 0110 from the sum
- D. add 0110 to the sum
Answer: A. subtract 0011 from the sum
Explanation: In Excess-3 addition, if no carry is generated (sum < 9), we must subtract 3 (0011) to get the correct Excess-3 result.
Question 5
The characteristic equation of an SR flip-flop is given by
- A. Q(n+1) = S + R Q(n)
- B. Q(n+1) = R Q'(n) + S Q(n)
- C. Q(n+1) = S' + R Q(n)
- D. Q(n+1) = S + R' Q(n)
Answer: D. Q(n+1) = S + R' Q(n)
Explanation: For SR flip flop, Q(n+1) = S + R'Q(n).
Question 6
A graph with "n" vertices and n-1 edges that is not a tree, is
- A. Connected
- B. Disconnected
- C. Euler
- D. A circuit
Answer: B. Disconnected
Explanation: A graph with n vertices and n-1 edges is a tree IF AND ONLY IF it is connected. If it is not a tree, it must be disconnected.
Question 7
If a graph requires k different colours for its proper colouring, then the chromatic number of the graph is
Answer: B. k
Explanation: The chromatic number is defined as the minimum number of colors required for proper coloring. Here it states it requires k, so it is k.
Question 8
A read bit can be read
- A. and written by CPU
- B. and written by peripheral
- C. by pheripheral and written by CPU
- D. by CPU and written by the peripheral
Answer: D. by CPU and written by the peripheral
Explanation: In the context of status registers, a 'ready' or 'read' bit is typically set (written) by the peripheral to indicate data availability and read by the CPU.
Question 9
Eigen vectors of matrix [[1, cos(theta)], [cos(theta), 1]] are
- A. vectors with components (1, 1) and (1, -1)
- B. vectors with components (1, 0) and (0, 1)
- C. vectors with components (cos(theta), sin(theta))
- D. none of the above
Answer: A. vectors with components (1, 1) and (1, -1)
Explanation: For matrix A = [[a, b], [b, a]], eigenvectors are [1, 1] and [1, -1]. Here a=1, b=cos(theta).
Question 10
The term "aging" refers to
- A. booting up the priority of a process in multi-level of queue without feedback
- B. gradually increasing the priority of jobs that wait in the system for a long time to remedy infinite blocking
- C. keeping track of the following a page has been in memory for the purpose of LRU replacement
- D. letting job reside in memory for a certain amount of time so that the number of pages required can be estimated accurately
Answer: B. gradually increasing the priority of jobs that wait in the system for a long time to remedy infinite blocking
Explanation: Aging is a technique to prevent starvation by gradually increasing the priority of processes waiting for a long time.
Question 11
Consider a set of n tasks with known runtimes r1, r2 ... rn to be run on a uniprocessor machine. Which of the following processor scheduling algorithms will result in the maximum throughput?
- A. Round Robin
- B. Shortest job first
- C. Highest response ratio next
- D. First cum first served
Answer: B. Shortest job first
Explanation: SJF minimizes average waiting time and maximizes throughput by completing shorter tasks first.
Question 12
Consider a job scheduling problem with four jobs J1, J2, J3, J4 with corresponding deadlines: (d1,d2,d3,d4) = (4, 2, 4, 2). Which of the following is not a feasible schedule without violating any job deadline?
- A. J2, J4, J1, J3
- B. J4, J1, J2, J3
- C. J4, J2, J1, J3
- D. J4, J2, J3, J1
Answer: B. J4, J1, J2, J3
Explanation: In schedule J4, J1, J2, J3: J4 done at 1 (ok), J1 done at 2 (ok), J2 done at 3 (Late! Deadline 2), J3 done at 4 (ok). J2 misses deadline.
Question 13
By using an eight bit optical encoder the degree of resolution that can be obtained is (approximately)
- A. 1.8 deg
- B. 3.4 deg
- C. 2.8 deg
- D. 1.4 deg
Answer: D. 1.4 deg
Explanation: Resolution = 360 degrees / 2^n = 360 / 256 = 1.40625 degrees.
Question 14
The principal of locality of reference justifies the use of
- A. virtual memory
- B. interrupts
- C. main memory
- D. cache memory
Answer: D. cache memory
Explanation: Cache memory relies on spatial and temporal locality to keep frequently accessed data close to the CPU.
Question 15
Consider the following psuedocode: x := 1; i := 1; while (x <= 1000) begin x := 2^x; i := i + 1; end; What is the value of i at the end of the pseudocode?
Answer: B. 5
Explanation: i=1, x=1. Loop 1: x=2^1=2, i=2. Loop 2: x=2^2=4, i=3. Loop 3: x=2^4=16, i=4. Loop 4: x=2^16=65536, i=5. Loop 5: x > 1000, terminates. Result i=5.
Question 16
The five items: A, B, C, D, and E are pushed in a stack, one after the other starting from A. The stack is popped four times and each element is inserted in a queue. Then two elements are deleted from the queue and pushed back on the stack. Now one item is popped from the stack. The popped item is
Answer: D. D
Explanation: Stack: [A,B,C,D,E]. Pop 4: E, D, C, B. Queue: E, D, C, B. Delete 2 from Q: E, D. Push to Stack: [A, E, D]. Pop 1: D.
Question 17
Round Robin scheduling is essentially the pre-emptive version of
- A. FIFO
- B. Shortest Job First
- C. Shortest remaining time
- D. Longest remaining time
Answer: A. FIFO
Explanation: Round Robin is FCFS (FIFO) with a time quantum preemption.
Question 18
The number of digit 1 present in the binary representation of 3 x 512 + 7 x 64 + 5 x 8 + 3 is
Answer: B. 9
Explanation: 3*512 = 3 * 2^9 = 11000000000 (binary 11 followed by 9 zeros? No. 3 is 11. 11 << 9). 7*64 = 111 << 6. 5*8 = 101 << 3. 3 = 11. 11000000000 + 111000000 + 101000 + 11. All non-overlapping. Total 1s = 2 + 3 + 2 + 2 = 9.
Question 19
Assume that each character code consists of 8 bits. The number of characters that can be transmitted per second through an synchronous serial line at 2400 baud rate, and with two stop bits is
Answer: C. 218
Explanation: Total bits per char = 1 start + 8 data + 2 stop = 11 bits. Rate = 2400 / 11 = 218.18.
Question 20
If the bandwidth of a signal is 5 kHz and the lowest frequency is 52 kHz, what is the highest frequency?
- A. 5 kHz
- B. 10 kHz
- C. 47 kHz
- D. 57 kHz
Answer: D. 57 kHz
Explanation: Bandwidth = High - Low. 5 = High - 52. High = 57 kHz.
Question 21
An Ethernet hub
- A. functions as a repeater
- B. connects to a digital PBX
- C. connects to a token-ring network
- D. functions as a gateway
Answer: A. functions as a repeater
Explanation: A hub works at the physical layer and acts as a multiport repeater.
Question 22
Phase transition for each bit are used in
- A. Amplitude modulation
- B. Carrier modulation
- C. Manchester encoding
- D. NRZ encoding
Answer: C. Manchester encoding
Explanation: Manchester encoding ensures a transition in the middle of each bit period.
Question 23
Study the following program: // precondition: x >= 0 public void demo(int x) { System.out.print(x % 10); if (x / 10 != 0) { demo(x / 10); } System.out.print(x % 10); } Which of the following is printed as a result of the call demo(1234)?
- A. 1441
- B. 3443
- C. 12344321
- D. 43211234
Answer: D. 43211234
Explanation: The function prints the last digit, recurses, then prints the last digit again. This effectively prints the number reversed, then the number forward. 43211234.
Question 24
Bit stuffing refers to
- A. inserting a '0' in user stream to differentiate it with a flag
- B. inserting a '0' in flag stream to avoid ambiguity
- C. appending a nibble to the flag sequence
- D. appending a nibble to the use data stream
Answer: A. inserting a '0' in user stream to differentiate it with a flag
Explanation: Bit stuffing inserts a 0 after five consecutive 1s in the data to prevent it from mimicking the flag pattern (01111110).
Question 25
What is the name of the technique in which the operating system of a computer executes several programs concurrently by switching back and forth between them?
- A. Partitioning
- B. Multi tasking
- C. Windowing
- D. Paging
Answer: B. Multi tasking
Explanation: Multitasking allows concurrent execution via time-sharing/switching.
Question 26
If there are five routers and six networks in an intranet using link state routing, how many routing tables are there?
Answer: B. 5
Explanation: Each router maintains its own routing table. 5 routers = 5 tables.
Question 27
Virtual memory is
- A. Part of Main Memory only used for swapping
- B. A technique to allow a program, of size more than the size of the main memory, to run
- C. Part of secondary storage used in program execution
- D. None of these
Answer: B. A technique to allow a program, of size more than the size of the main memory, to run
Explanation: Virtual memory abstracts the storage resources to simulate large main memory.
Question 28
The level of aggregation of information required for operational control is
- A. Detailed
- B. Aggregate
- C. Qualitative
- D. None of the above
Answer: A. Detailed
Explanation: Operational control requires specific, detailed data for day-to-day decisions. Strategic control uses aggregated data.
Question 29
The set of all Equivalence Classes of a set A of Cardinality C
- A. is of cardinality 2^C
- B. has the same cardinality as A
- C. forms a partition of A
- D. is of cardinality C²
Answer: C. forms a partition of A
Explanation: Equivalence classes partition the set A.
Question 30
0.75 in decimal system is equivalent to ______ in octal system
- A. 0.60
- B. 0.52
- C. 0.54
- D. 0.50
Answer: A. 0.60
Explanation: 0.75 * 8 = 6.00. So 0.6 in octal.
Question 31
In an SR latch made by cross coupling two NAND gates, if both S and R inputs are set to 0, then it will result in
- A. Q=0, Qbar=1
- B. Q=1, Qbar=0
- C. Q=1, Qbar=1
- D. Indeterminate states
Answer: C. Q=1, Qbar=1
Explanation: For NAND latch, 00 is the invalid state where both outputs go High (1).
Question 32
Identify the correct translation into logical notation of the following assertion. "Some boys in the class are taller than all the girls"
- A. (Ex) (boy(x) -> (Vy) (girl(y) ^ taller(x,y)))
- B. (Ex) (boy(x) ^ (Vy) (girl(y) ^ taller(x,y)))
- C. (Ex) (boy(x) -> (Vy) (girl(y) -> taller(x,y)))
- D. (Ex) (boy(x) ^ (Vy) (girl(y) -> taller(x,y)))
Answer: D. (Ex) (boy(x) ^ (Vy) (girl(y) -> taller(x,y)))
Explanation: There exists an x such that x is a boy AND for all y, if y is a girl, x is taller than y.
Question 33
Company X shipped 5 computer chips, 1 of which was defective. Company Y shipped 4, 2 defective. If chosen chip is defective, prob it came from Y?
Answer: C. 2/3
Explanation: P(D|X) = 1/5. P(D|Y) = 2/4 = 1/2. Assume P(X)=P(Y)=1/2 (randomly chosen). P(Y|D) = P(D|Y)P(Y) / (P(D|X)P(X) + P(D|Y)P(Y)) = (1/2 * 1/2) / (1/5 * 1/2 + 1/2 * 1/2) = (1/4) / (1/10 + 1/4) = (1/4) / (7/20) = 5/7. Wait. Question says 'If the chosen chip is found to be defective'. Are we choosing a company first or pooling all chips? 'randomly from the 9 chips shipped'. Total 9 chips. Total defective = 1+2=3. Chips from Y = 4. Defective from Y = 2. P(Y|Defective) = Defective_Y / Total_Defective = 2/3.
Question 34
Ring counter is analogous to
- A. Toggle Switch
- B. Latch
- C. Stepping Switch
- D. S-R flip flop
Answer: C. Stepping Switch
Explanation: A ring counter activates one output at a time in sequence, similar to a stepping switch.
Question 35
The output 0 and 1 level for TTL Logic family is approximately
- A. 0.1 and 5 V
- B. 0.6 and 3.5 V
- C. 0.9 and 1.75 V
- D. 1.75 and 0.9 V
Answer: A. 0.1 and 5 V
Explanation: Ideally 0V and 5V, practically Vol < 0.4V and Voh > 2.4V. Option A is the closest ideal representation.
Question 36
Consider a computer system that stores floating-point numbers with 16-bit mantissa and 8-bit exponent... The smallest and largest positive values?
- A. Option A
- B. Option B
- C. Option C
- D. Option D
Answer: A. Option A
Explanation: Depends on specific format (excess notation etc). Standard range for 8-bit exponent is roughly 10^-38 to 10^38. Option A is likely 10^-128 to 10^128 (if exponent is base 2, -128 to 127). 2^128 is approx 10^38? No, 2^10 ~ 10^3. 2^128 = (2^10)^12.8 ~ (10^3)^12.8 ~ 10^38. If options are like 10^128 that implies base 10? Or specific Isro format.
Question 37
In comparison with static RAM memory, the dynamic RAM memory has
- A. lower bit density and higher power consumption
- B. higher bit density and higher power consumption
- C. lower bit density and lower power consumption
- D. higher bit density and lower power consumption
Answer: D. higher bit density and lower power consumption
Explanation: DRAM uses 1 transistor/cap per bit vs 6 transistors for SRAM, so higher density. It consumes less static power (though needs refresh).
Question 38
The Hexadecimal equivalent of 01111100110111100011 is
- A. CD73E
- B. ABD3F
- C. 7CDE3
- D. FA4CD
Answer: C. 7CDE3
Explanation: Group by 4: 0111 1100 1101 1110 0011 -> 7 C D E 3.
Question 39
Disk requests are received... cylinder 5, 25, 18, 3, 39, 8, 35. Head at 20. SSF algorithm. Total seek?
- A. 125 msec
- B. 295 msec
- C. 575 msec
- D. 750 msec
Answer: A. 125 msec
Explanation: Current 20. Queue: 3, 5, 8, 18, 25, 35, 39. Order: 18 (diff 2), 25 (diff 7), 35 (diff 10), 39 (diff 4), 8 (diff 31), 5 (diff 3), 3 (diff 2). Path: 20->18->25->35->39->8->5->3. Distance: 2+7+10+4+31+3+2 = 59 cylinders? Wait. SSF from 20: 18 (dist 2). From 18: 25(7) or 8(10)? 25. From 25: 35(10) or 8(17)? 35. From 35: 39(4). From 39: 8(31). From 8: 5(3). From 5: 3(2). Total: 2+7+10+4+31+3+2 = 59. Options are much higher. Maybe missing scaling factor or 'msec' implies time calculation. If 1 cylinder = x msec?
Question 40
Consider a system having 'm' resources of the same type. 3 processes A,B,C... peak demands 3, 4, 6. Minimum 'm' to ensure no deadlock?
Answer: A. 11
Explanation: Deadlock happens if all request max-1. (3-1)+(4-1)+(6-1) = 2+3+5 = 10. If we have 10 resources, deadlock possible. If 11, at least one gets full. m = 11.
Question 41
A task in a blocked state
- A. is executable
- B. is running
- C. must still be placed in the run queues
- D. is waiting for some temporarily unavailable resources
Answer: D. is waiting for some temporarily unavailable resources
Explanation: Blocked state means waiting for an event or resource (IO, semaphore).
Question 42
Semaphores
- A. synchronize critical resources to prevent deadlock
- B. synchronize critical resources to prevent contention
- C. are used to do I/O
- D. are used for memory management
Answer: B. synchronize critical resources to prevent contention
Explanation: Semaphores are synchronization primitives used to manage concurrent access to shared resources (mutual exclusion).
Question 43
On a system using non-preemptive scheduling, processes with expected run times of 5, 18, 9 and 12 are in the ready queue. In what order should they be run to minimize wait time?
- A. 5, 12, 9, 18
- B. 5, 9, 12, 18
- C. 12, 18, 9, 5
- D. 9, 12, 18, 5
Answer: B. 5, 9, 12, 18
Explanation: SJF (Shortest Job First) minimizes average waiting time. Order: 5, 9, 12, 18.
Question 44
The number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by
- A. the instruction set architecture
- B. page size
- C. number of processes in memory
- D. physical memory size
Answer: A. the instruction set architecture
Explanation: The minimum number of frames is defined by the instruction set (e.g., max number of pages touched by a single instruction).
Question 45
A program consists of two modules... Probability density functions f1(t) and f2(t). Probability of completing in time t?
- A. f1(t) + f2(t)
- B. Integral f1(x)f2(x) dx
- C. Convolution
- D. max(f1, f2)
Answer: C. Convolution
Explanation: If two independent sequential tasks have PDF f1 and f2, the total time PDF is the convolution f1 * f2.
Question 46
Consider a small 2-way set-associative cache... Sequence 8, 12, 0, 12, 8. Number of cache misses (LRU)?
Answer: C. 4
Explanation: Depends on mapping. If all map to same set: 8 (M), 12 (M), 0 (M, evict 8), 12 (H), 8 (M, evict 0). 4 misses. If different sets, fewer.
Question 47
Which commands are used to control access over objects in relational database?
- A. CASCADE & MVD
- B. GRANT & REVOKE
- C. QUE & QUIST
- D. None of these
Answer: B. GRANT & REVOKE
Explanation: DCL commands.
Question 48
Which of the following is aggregate function in SQL?
- A. Avg
- B. Select
- C. Ordered by
- D. distinct
Answer: A. Avg
Explanation: AVG, SUM, COUNT, MAX, MIN are aggregate functions.
Question 49
One approach to handling fuzzy logic data... logic element called a flit... how many flits?
Answer: B. 5
Explanation: Usually ternary implies 3 states. The question seems specific to a particular representation. Often 5 levels (Low, Med-Low, Med, Med-High, High).
Question 50
A view of a database that appears to an application program is known as
- A. Schema
- B. Subschema
- C. Virtual table
- D. None of these
Answer: B. Subschema
Explanation: Subschema or External Schema defines the view for applications.
Question 51
Armstrong's inference rule doesn't determine
- A. Reflexivity
- B. Augmentation
- C. Transitivity
- D. Mutual dependency
Answer: D. Mutual dependency
Explanation: Armstrong's axioms are Reflexivity, Augmentation, Transitivity. Mutual dependency is not one of them.
Question 52
Which operation is used to extract specified columns from a table?
- A. Project
- B. Join
- C. Extract
- D. Substitute
Answer: A. Project
Explanation: Projection (Pi) selects columns.
Question 53
In the Big-Endian system, the computer stores
- A. MSB of data in the lowest memory address
- B. LSB of data in the lowest memory address
- C. MSB of data in the highest memory address
- D. LSB of data in the highest memory address
Answer: A. MSB of data in the lowest memory address
Explanation: Big-Endian stores Most Significant Byte first (at lowest address).
Question 54
BCNF is not used for cases where a relation has
- A. Two (or more) candidate keys
- B. Two candidate keys and composite
- C. The candidate key overlap
- D. Two mutually exclusive foreign keys
Answer: C. The candidate key overlap
Explanation: BCNF is strict; sometimes 3NF is preferred if dependency preservation is needed, especially with overlapping candidate keys.
Question 55
Selection sort algorithm design technique is an example of
- A. Greedy method
- B. Divide and conquer
- C. Dynamic Programming
- D. Backtracking
Answer: A. Greedy method
Explanation: It greedily selects the minimum element in each pass.
Question 56
Which of the following RAID level provides the highest Data Transfer Rate (Read/Write)
- A. RAID 1
- B. RAID 3
- C. RAID 4
- D. RAID 5
Answer: A. RAID 1
Explanation: Actually RAID 0 is fastest (striping). Among options, RAID 1 is slow on write. RAID 3/4/5 use striping. Usually RAID 0 is the answer for speed.
Question 57
Which of the following programming language(s) provides garbage collection automatically
- A. Lisp
- B. C++
- C. Fortran
- D. C
Answer: A. Lisp
Explanation: Lisp (and Java, Python) has automatic GC. C/C++ do not.
Question 58
The Average case and worst case complexities for Merge sort algorithm are
- A. O(n²), O(n²)
- B. O(n²), O(n log n)
- C. O(n log n), O(n²)
- D. O(n log n), O(n log n)
Answer: D. O(n log n), O(n log n)
Explanation: Merge sort is consistently O(n log n).
Question 59
The time taken by binary search algorithm to search a key in a sorted array of n elements is
- A. O(log_2 n)
- B. O(n)
- C. O(n log_2 n)
- D. O(n²)
Answer: A. O(log_2 n)
Explanation: Binary search is logarithmic.
Question 60
Which of the following is correct with respect to Two phase commit protocol?
- A. Ensures serializability
- B. Prevents Deadlock
- C. Detects Deadlock
- D. Recover from Deadlock
Answer: A. Ensures serializability
Explanation: 2PC ensures atomicity and consistency (serializability) in distributed transactions.
Question 61
The Fibonacci sequence is the sequence of integers
- A. 1,3,5,7,9,11,13
- B. 0,1,1,2,3,5,8,13,21,54
- C. 0,1,3,4,7,11,18,29,47
- D. 0,1,3,7,15
Answer: B. 0,1,1,2,3,5,8,13,21,54
Explanation: Fibonacci: 0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21, 34 (Option says 54, typo?)
Question 62
Let X be the adjacency matrix of a graph G with no self loops. The entries along the principal diagonal of X are
- A. all zeros
- B. all ones
- C. both zeros and ones
- D. different
Answer: A. all zeros
Explanation: No self loops means no edge (i, i), so diagonal is 0.
Question 63
Which of these is not a feature of WAP 2.0
- A. Push & Pull Model
- B. Interface to a storage device
- C. Multimedia messaging
- D. Hashing
Answer: D. Hashing
Explanation: Hashing is a general concept, not a specific feature of WAP 2.0 protocol stack compared to Push/Pull/MMS.
Question 64
Feedback queues
- A. are very simple to implement
- B. dispatch tasks according to execution characteristics
- C. are used to favour real time tasks
- D. require manual intervention to implement properly
Answer: B. dispatch tasks according to execution characteristics
Explanation: Multilevel feedback queues adjust priority based on CPU burst behavior (execution characteristics).
Question 65
Which of the following is not a UML DIAGRAM?
- A. Use Case
- B. Class Diagram
- C. Analysis Diagram
- D. Swimlane Diagram
Answer: C. Analysis Diagram
Explanation: Analysis Diagram is not a standard UML diagram type. (Swimlane is part of Activity diagrams, but 'Analysis Diagram' is definitely not standard).
Question 66
Silly Window Syndrome is related to
- A. Error during transmission
- B. File transfer protocol
- C. Degrade in TCP performance
- D. Interface problem
Answer: C. Degrade in TCP performance
Explanation: SWS causes inefficient small packet transmission in TCP.
Question 67
To execute all loops at their boundaries and within their operational bounds is an example of
- A. Black Box Testing
- B. Alpha Testing
- C. Recovery Testing
- D. White Box Testing
Answer: D. White Box Testing
Explanation: Testing logic paths and loops requires knowledge of internal code (White Box).
Question 68
SSL is not responsible for
- A. Mutual authentication of client & server
- B. Secret communication
- C. Data Integrity protection
- D. Error detection & correction
Answer: D. Error detection & correction
Explanation: Error detection/correction is typically TCP's job. SSL handles security (authentication, encryption, integrity).
Question 69
A rule in a limited entry decision table is a
- A. row of the table consisting of condition entries
- B. row of the table consisting of action entries
- C. column of the table consisting of condition entries and the corresponding action entries
- D. columns of the table consisting of conditions of the stub
Answer: C. column of the table consisting of condition entries and the corresponding action entries
Explanation: A rule corresponds to a column defining a combination of conditions and resulting actions.
Question 70
The standard for certificates used on internet is
- A. X.25
- B. X.301
- C. X.409
- D. X.509
Answer: D. X.509
Explanation: X.509 is the standard for public key certificates.
Question 71
Hashed message is signed by a sender using
- A. his public key
- B. his private key
- C. receiver's public key
- D. receiver's private key
Answer: B. his private key
Explanation: Digital signatures use the sender's private key to sign the hash.
Question 72
An email contains a textual birthday greeting, a picture of a cake, and a song. The order is not important. What is the content-type?
- A. Multipart/mixed
- B. Multipart/parallel
- C. Multipart/digest
- D. Multipart/alternative
Answer: B. Multipart/parallel
Explanation: If order is not important and they are independent/simultaneous, 'parallel' might be used, but usually 'mixed' is the default for attachments. However, 'parallel' was a type for simultaneous display.
Question 73
Range of IP Address from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 are
- A. Reserved for loopback
- B. Reserved for broadcast
- C. Used for multicast packets
- D. Reserved for future addressing
Answer: C. Used for multicast packets
Explanation: Class D addresses are for multicast.
Question 74
IEEE 802.11 is standard for
- A. Ethernet
- B. Bluetooth
- C. Broadband Wireless
- D. Wireless LANs
Answer: D. Wireless LANs
Explanation: 802.11 is Wi-Fi (WLAN).
Question 75
When a host on network A sends a message to a host on network B, which address does the router look at?
- A. Port
- B. IP
- C. Physical
- D. Subnet mask
Answer: B. IP
Explanation: Routers route packets based on destination IP address.
Question 76
Which of the following is not an approach to Software Process Assessment?
- A. SPICE(ISO/IEC15504)
- B. Standard CMMI Assessment Method for process improvement
- C. ISO 9001:2000
- D. IEEE 2000:2001
Answer: D. IEEE 2000:2001
Explanation: IEEE 2000:2001 is not a standard software process assessment model.
Question 77
A physical DFD specifies
- A. what processes will be used
- B. who generates data and who processes it
- C. what each person in an organization does
- D. which data will be generated
Answer: B. who generates data and who processes it
Explanation: Physical DFD shows implementation details (people, systems).
Question 78
In UML diagram of a class
- A. state of object cannot be represented
- B. state is irrelevant
- C. state is represented as an attribute
- D. state is represented as a result of an operation
Answer: C. state is represented as an attribute
Explanation: State is typically captured by the values of attributes.
Question 79
Which of the following models is used for software reliability?
- A. Waterfall
- B. Musa
- C. COCOMO
- D. Rayleigh
Answer: B. Musa
Explanation: Musa's Basic Execution Time Model is a software reliability growth model.
Question 80
Dijkstra's algorithm is used to
- A. Create LSAs
- B. Flood an internet with information
- C. Calculate the routing tables
- D. Create a link state database
Answer: C. Calculate the routing tables
Explanation: It computes shortest paths (SPF) to populate routing tables in Link State protocols like OSPF.