ISRO Civil Engineering (CE) 2023 Question Paper & Solutions

Attempt the ISRO Civil Engineering (CE) 2023 previous year paper in real CBT exam mode or practice mode. Answers will be added when the official answer key is published on CMB HUB.

All ISRO Civil Engineering (CE) papers

95 questions. The official answer key for this paper has not been published on CMB HUB yet, so the questions are shown without answers.

Question 1

With a 1 unit change in b, what is the change in x in the solution of the system of equations x + y = 2, 1.01x + 0.99y = b ?

A. zero
B. 2 units
C. 50 units
D. 100 units

Question 2

What is the derivative of f(x) = |x| at x = 0 ?

A. 1
B. -1
C. 0
D. Does not exist

Question 3

Consider the system of simultaneous equations x + 2y + z = 6, 2x + y + 2z = 6, x + y + z = 5. This system has

A. Unique solution
B. Infinite number of solutions
C. No solution
D. Exactly two solutions

Question 4

The function f(x) = 2x^3 - 3x^2 - 36x + 2 has its maxima at

A. x = 0 only
B. x = -2 only
C. both x = -2 and x = 3
D. x = 3 only

Question 5

The table below gives values of a function F(x) obtained for values of x at intervals of 0.25. [Table: x: 0, 0.25, 0.5, 0.75, 1.0; F(x): 1, 0.9412, 0.8, 0.64, 0.50] The value of the integral of the function between the limits 0 to 1 using Simpson's rule is

A. 0.7854
B. 2.3562
C. 3.1416
D. 7.5000

Question 6

Pipe A can fill an empty tank in 5 hours, while pipe B can empty the full tank in 6 hours. If both are opened at the same time when the tank is empty, how much time is required to fill the tank full?

A. 10 hours
B. 30 hours
C. 25 hours
D. 32 hours

Question 7

Consider the following statements: (i) If the Reynolds number is less than 2000 (ii) If the Reynolds number is between 2000 and 4000 (iii) If the Reynolds number is greater than 4000. Which of these statements is correct for a Turbulent flow in Circular Pipe?

A. (i)
B. (ii)
C. (iii)
D. None of the above

Question 8

In an open tank, water level is maintained at a constant level through a supply of water. The tank is provided circular opening of 2 cm radius which discharges 0.74 m^3 water per minute. Determine the depth from the top to the centre of the opening for the above hydraulic condition?

A. 6.0 m
B. 4.8 m
C. 9.6 m
D. 2.9 m

Question 9

Flowing and stored water posses which of the following energies?

A. Solar and nuclear energy
B. Thermal energy
C. Kinetic and potential energy
D. Geothermal energy

Question 10

Pressure exerted on a ball immersed in water at a depth of 5 m is?

A. 245 kPa
B. 500 kPa
C. 275 kPa
D. 400 kPa

Question 11

Drip irrigation or Trickle or micro Irrigation is adopted under the situations (i) Where sufficient water is available (ii) Where sufficient water is not available (iii) It delivers water and nutrients directly to the plant's roots zone (iv) Plant gets exactly what it needs, to grow optimally

A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iii)
C. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
D. None of the above

Question 12

Ombrometer (Pulviometer) is used to measure

A. Soil moisture depth
B. Rainfall depth
C. Seepage depth
D. Root zone depth

Question 13

In the cross drainage Hydraulic structure which carries a canal above drainage is termed as?

A. Drainage duct
B. Super Passage duct
C. Aquifer
D. Aqueduct

Question 14

The base width of a soil gravity dam is 25 m, the material of the dam has a specific gravity of 2.56 and the dam is designed as an elementary profile ignoring uplift. What is the approximate allowable height of the dam?

A. 64 m
B. 40 m
C. 164 m
D. 80 m

Question 15

The R.L. of the point "A" which is on the floor is 110 m and back sight reading on "A" is 2.635 m. If the foresight reading on the point "B" which is on the ceiling is 2.575 m, the R.L. of point "B" will be

A. 112.635 m
B. 107.365 m
C. 110.000 m
D. 115.270 m

Question 16

A 20 m chain was found to be 10 cm long after chaining a distance of 2000 m. It was found to be 18 cm long at the end of the days work after chaining a total distance of 4000 m. What is the true distance, if the correct chain was used for the measurement work?

A. 3962 m
B. 4019 m
C. 3981 m
D. 4038 m

Question 17

In a closed traverse with five sides, the error found from the fore bearing and back bearing of last line is +2°. Calculate the correction to be applied for each line.

A. 0°24'
B. 0°48'
C. 0°40'
D. 1°36'

Question 18

Following offsets were taken from a survey line to a hedge. [Table: Distance (in meters): 0, 5, 10, 15, 20, 30, 40; Offsets (in meters): 4, 3.5, 5, 5.5, 8, 6, 9] The area between survey line and hedge is (by trapezoidal method)

A. 452 Sqmt
B. 542 Sqmt
C. 254 Sqmt
D. 245 Sqmt

Question 19

What is Chain Angle with regard to Surveying?

A. Measuring the distances on straight line
B. Measuring the distances on perpendicular line
C. Measuring the distances at the corner
D. None of the above

Question 20

What shall be the radius of horizontal curve of a highway with design speed of 100 Kmph and coefficient of lateral friction 0.10?

A. 700 m
B. 800 m
C. 650 m
D. 850 m

Question 21

Which of the following is not a natural error in compass surveying?

A. Due to proximity of local attraction forces
B. Pivot being bent
C. Variation in declination
D. None of the above

Question 22

The method of carrying levels and establishing the RL of a new point from a known BM is

A. Establishment of benchmark
B. Fly levelling
C. Level setting
D. None of the above

Question 23

The correct prismoidal formula for volume is (i) D [first area + last area + ∑ Even area + 2 ∑ odd areas] (ii) D/3 [first area + last area + 4 ∑ Even area + 2 ∑ odd areas] (iii) D/3 [first area + last area + 2 ∑ Even area + 4 ∑ odd areas] (iv) D/6 [first area + last area + 2 ∑ Even area + 4 ∑ odd areas]

A. (i)
B. (ii)
C. (iii)
D. (iv)

Question 24

The correct volume of concrete for the footing size indicated below. [Figure description: A footing with plan view and elevation. Plan: a square outer boundary of 2 m × 2 m with a smaller central square (1 m × 1 m, the column/top face) joined to the outer corners by diagonal lines. Elevation: a rectangular base slab 2 m long and 0.4 m thick, with a tapering (pyramidal frustum) portion above it rising to a top width of 1 m; total height marked 1 m (0.4 m base slab plus tapered part).]

A. 1.20 Cum
B. 2.40 Cum
C. 0.80 Cum
D. 3.20 Cum

Question 25

For plastering, what is the deduction to be made where window is fixed flush to the wall surface for opening of size 1.00 × 1.50 m as per IS code 1200 (mode of measurement).

A. Deduction is made on one face of the wall
B. Deduction is made on both the face of the wall
C. Deduction is made on one face of the wall, but the area of sill, jamb and soffits of the opening is added
D. Deduction is made on both the face of the wall, but the area of sill, jamb and soffits of the opening is added

Question 26

The general requirement as per BIS code 4926 for RMC is that concrete shall be discharged from the truck-mixer within ________ time of loading without using retarding admixtures.

A. 30 min
B. 60 min
C. 90 min
D. 120 min

Question 27

A good brick, when immersed in water for 24 hours, should not absorb more than

A. 15% of its dry weight
B. 20% of its dry weight
C. 20% of its saturated weight
D. 20% of its wet weight

Question 28

Singly reinforced beams are designed to resist:

A. Bending and Buckling only
B. Shear and Torsion only
C. Torsional moments only
D. Bending moment and shear force only

Question 29

What is the depth of neutral axis of a balanced section of 340 mm depth with 40mm effective cover and Fe 500 grade reinforcement steel?

A. 142 mm
B. 150 mm
C. 138 mm
D. 125 mm

Question 30

What is the depth of the beam required from vertical deflection limit criteria as per IS 456 2000, for a beam of 5Mts span with simply supported condition?

A. 200 mm
B. 250 mm
C. 300 mm
D. 350 mm

Question 31

Ductile detailing is provided in the RC structure to enhance performance under

A. Harsh environment
B. Earthquakes
C. High temperature
D. Heavy load

Question 32

The effective moment of inertia Ie of a cracked section in RC beam is

A. Always less than MI of fully cracked and gross uncracked section
B. Always more than MI of fully cracked and less than gross uncracked section
C. Always more than MI of fully cracked and gross uncracked section
D. Always equal to the MI of fully cracked section

Question 33

What is the bending moment to be resisted by a footing of size 2.5 m × 2.5 m supporting a column of 0.5 m × 0.5 m, subject to a soil pressure of 200 kN/m^2?

A. 200 kN.m
B. 250 kN.m
C. 275 kN.m
D. 225 kN.m

Question 34

What is the inter-storey drift limitation in terms of storey height as per IS 1893:2016?

A. 0.4%
B. 0.35%
C. 0.2%
D. 0.5%

Question 35

What is the equivalent shear in a beam of width 300 mm subjected to a shear force of 100 kN and Torsional moment of 60 kN.m?

A. 450 kN
B. 420 kN
C. 380 kN
D. 360 kN

Question 36

As per IS 456:2000, regarding thickness of edge of footing consider the following assertions. Assertion 1: In reinforced concrete footings, the thickness at the edge shall be not less than 150 mm for footings on soils. Assertion 2: In plain/unreinforced concrete footings, the thickness at the edge shall be not less than 100 mm for footings on soils. Which one of the following statements is CORRECT?

A. Both Assertion (1) and Assertion (2) are False
B. Assertion (1) is True and Assertion (2) is False
C. Both Assertion (1) and Assertion (2) are True
D. Assertion (1) is False and Assertion (2) is True

Question 37

Basic virtues of earthquake resistant design of building

A. Good structural configuration
B. Lateral stiffness and strength
C. Collapse mechanism
D. All the above

Question 38

Select incorrect statement for Tri-calcium aluminate (C3A)

A. Reacts fast with water
B. Generates less heat of hydration
C. Causes initial setting and early strength of cement
D. Does not contribute to develop ultimate strength

Question 39

For the construction of thin R.C.C. structures, the type of cement to be avoided, is

A. Ordinary Portland cement
B. Rapid hardening cement
C. Low heat cement
D. Blast furnace slag cement

Question 40

The light weight aggregates are obtained from

A. Sedimentary rocks
B. Metamorphic rocks
C. Igneous rocks
D. Volcanic source

Question 41

Crack Arrest mechanism is observed in

A. High Strength Concrete
B. Self-compacting concrete
C. Fibre reinforced concrete
D. Geo-polymer concrete

Question 42

On a grading curve, the gap grading is represented by

A. A horizontal line
B. A vertical line
C. N.W. inclined line
D. N.E. inclined line

Question 43

A flaky aggregate is said to be elongated if its length is

A. Equal to the mean size
B. Twice the mean size
C. Thrice the mean size
D. Four times the mean size

Question 44

The pozzolanic action for formation of C-S-H is represented best by which of the following

A. Ca(OH)2 + Reactive Superplasticiser + H2O = C-S-H
B. Ca(OH)2 + Reactive Silicon dioxide + H2O = C-S-H
C. Ca(OH)2 + Reactive Oxides + H2O = C-S-H
D. Ca(OH)2 + Reactive Sulphur + H2O = C-S-H

Question 45

Gel/space ratio is NOT dependent on which of the following

A. Cement content
B. Fraction of cement hydrated
C. Water volume available for hydration
D. Aggregate volume

Question 46

In NDT evaluation, PUNDIT stands for

A. Portable Ultrasonic Non-Destructive Investigation Test
B. Portable Ultrasonic Non-Destructive Indicator Test
C. Portable Ultrasonic Non-Destructive Inference Test
D. None of the above

Question 47

In a construction site, the RMC vehicle arrived two hours late with 7 m^3 of concrete. As a site engineer, what will be your action?

A. Allow the vehicle for concreting
B. Make arrangement to add more cement and allow concreting
C. Stop the vehicle, Reject the batch and inform the competent authority
D. Send the concrete to other site

Question 48

Flash Mixer in water treatment is used

A. To breakup suspended particles
B. To mix coagulants rapidly
C. To mix chlorine
D. To stabilize the water after treatment

Question 49

Aeration process removes excess of ________ from water

A. Carbon-di-oxide
B. Carbon-di-oxide and iron
C. Bacteria and virus
D. Hardness

Question 50

The formula that is commonly used to calculate the water flow in pipe system

A. Manning's
B. Hazen – Williams
C. Stokes
D. Chezy's

Question 51

Wholesome water means

A. Highly palatable and free of odour water
B. Spring water
C. Rainwater
D. Water which is free from pathogens and excess harmful substances

Question 52

Minimum velocity of flow in sewers at initial peak flow is ________ m/sec

A. 3.0
B. 2.5
C. 1.0
D. 0.6

Question 53

Minimum level of oxygen (as mg/l) in water bodies for survival of aquatic life in India is

A. 8
B. 6
C. 4
D. 2

Question 54

A sedimentation tank has a diameter of 16 meters with average depth of 2.0 m and rate of flow is 5 MLD. The detention period in hours is

A. 1.23
B. 1.66
C. 1.72
D. 1.93

Question 55

The various factors which control the highway alignment are : (i) Obligatory points (ii) Traffic (iii) Geometric design

A. (i) only
B. (ii) and (iii) only
C. (i) and (iii) only
D. (i), (ii) and (iii)

Question 56

If the Headlight Sight Distance on a highway is 105 m, what will be the value of Intermediate Sight Distance?

A. 183 m
B. 102 m
C. 210 m
D. 316 m

Question 57

The desirable properties of soil as highway material

A. Stability, Compressibility and Permanency of strength
B. Instability, Compressibility and Permanency of strength
C. Stability, Incompressibility and Temporary strength
D. Stability, Incompressibility and Permanency of strength

Question 58

This is the minimum water content required to make the soil flow under the application of very small shearing force

A. Plastic limit
B. Shrinkage limit
C. Liquid limit
D. Moisture limit

Question 59

California Bearing Ratio (CBR) test is an empirical

A. Penetration Test
B. Bearing test
C. Shear test
D. Torsion Test

Question 60

Identify the most significant factor, which affect the design and performance of rigid pavements

A. Grade of concrete
B. Temperature variation
C. Type of joints and their spacing
D. Wheel load

Question 61

The requirements of highway drainage are : (i) The surface water from the carriageway is effectively drained off (ii) The surface water from the adjoining land should be prevented from entering the roadway (iii) Seepage and other sources of underground water should be effectively intercepted and drained off

A. (ii) and (iii) only
B. (i) and (ii) only
C. (i) and (iii) only
D. (i), (ii) and (iii)

Question 62

The formula 0.0000006 WV^2 is the expression for

A. Resistance due to gradients
B. Resistance due to curves
C. Atmospheric Resistance
D. None of the above

Question 63

A locomotive on a meter gauge track has three pairs of driving wheels each carrying 20 tonnes. What maximum load can it pull on a level track with a curvature of 2 degrees at 50 kmph?

A. 1000 tonnes
B. 2000 tonnes
C. 1300 tonnes
D. 2500 tonnes

Question 64

The density index of sand was determined as 65%. The observed values of maximum and minimum dry unit weights corresponding to the loosest and densest states were 13.5 kN/m^3 and 16.5 kN/m^3 respectively. If the specific gravity is 2.65, what is the in-situ void ratio of the soil?

A. 0.66
B. 0.40
C. 0.32
D. 0.58

Question 65

What is the ultimate load carrying capacity of a friction pile of 300 mm diameter and 10 m length placed in clayey soil of unit weight 15 kN/m^3 and cohesion of 40 kPa? Take adhesion factor of 0.8 and use IS Code method.

A. 25.45 kN
B. 327.04 kN
C. 301.59 kN
D. 225.31 kN

Question 66

If the liquid limit and plastic limit of a fine-grained soil are 45% and 32% respectively, what is the type of soil as per IS classification system

A. MH
B. CL
C. CI
D. MI

Question 67

When the water table is at the base of the footing, the water table correction factors, Rw1 and Rw2 are

A. 1 and 0.5
B. 1 and 1
C. 0.5 and 1
D. 0.5 and 0.5

Question 68

For a rigid footing resting on a saturated clay, the contact pressure on the footing is

A. maximum at the edges and minimum at the centre
B. maximum at the centre and minimum at the edges
C. uniform for the entire width of footing
D. maximum at one edge and minimum at the other edge

Question 69

The Proctor needle method in field compaction is useful to quickly measure the ________

A. Thickness of layer
B. Compactive effort
C. Bulk density of soil
D. Water content of soil

Question 70

The settlement of a pile group placed in sandy soil should

A. be less than 30 mm
B. be less than 40 mm
C. not exceed 10 times the settlement of a single pile
D. not exceed 16 times the settlement of a single pile

Question 71

The coefficient of uniformity (Cu) and coefficient of curvature (Cc) for a well graded sand should be

A. Cu must be greater than 4 and Cc must be between 1 to 3
B. Cu must be greater than 6 and Cc must be between 1 to 3
C. Cu must be greater than 2 and Cc equal to 1
D. Cu must be less than 2 and Cc must be greater than 1

Question 72

Due to cohesion, the passive earth pressure on the retaining wall

A. decreases
B. increases
C. remain same
D. becomes zero

Question 73

The total active thrust in a cohesive backfill will become zero at

A. depth of tension cracks
B. critical depth
C. ground surface
D. mid depth

Question 74

The bearing capacity factor 'Nc' to be taken for estimating the load carrying capacity of pile in clayey soil is

A. 7
B. 5.14
C. 5.7
D. 9

Question 75

Setting time of cement can be determined using

A. Vicat's Apparatus
B. Le Chatelier's Apparatus
C. Briquette's Apparatus
D. Hoffmann Apparatus

Question 76

A milestone chart represents ________.

A. Delay in progress of work
B. Interdependance of various activities
C. Activities in chronological order but not in logical sequence
D. All of the above

Question 77

If the unit of rectangular Moment of Inertia is m^4, what is the unit of Polar Moment of Inertia

A. m^3
B. m^4
C. m^2
D. m

Question 78

The elongation ratio of two isometric material having same dimensions subjected to same load is 2:4. The ratio of the modulus of two isometric materials is

A. 4 : 8
B. 2 : 4
C. 8 : 4
D. 4 : 2

Question 79

For the frame shown below, If the axial and shear deformations in different members of the frame are assumed to be negligible, the reduction in the degree of kinematic indeterminacy would be equal to [Figure description: A portal frame: two vertical columns connected at the top by a horizontal beam; both column bases are hinged (pinned) supports shown as triangles on the ground.]

A. 8
B. 5
C. 6
D. Data insufficient

Question 80

A steel column is restrained against both translation and rotation at one end and is restrained only against rotation but free to translate at the other end. Theoretical and design (IS:800-2007) values, respectively, of effective length factor of the column are

A. 1.0 and 1.2
B. 1.0 and 1.0
C. 1.2 and 1.0
D. 1.2 and 1.2

Question 81

Which option replaces the question mark? (1 mark) [Figure description: A 2x2 analogy grid. Top row: a canoe paddle and a canoe (boat). Bottom row: a steering wheel and a question mark. Options: 1. a landscape with trees and river/lake; 2. a sailing ship on water; 3. a vehicle tyre/wheel; 4. a car.]

A. 1 (trees and river landscape)
B. 2 (sailing ship)
C. 3 (tyre)
D. 4 (car)

Question 82

Find the replica image to the first (1 mark) [Figure description: A strip of five pentagon figures. The first is the reference pentagon with a small open circle at the top and a filled black dot at the lower right. Four rotated/reflected pentagons labelled A, B, C, D follow, each containing one open circle and one or two filled dots in different positions.]

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Question 83

Which option replaces the question mark? (2 marks) [Figure description: A rule reference panel showing four symbol transformations: (1) a green circle-with-horizontal-lines operator 'Changes shading of 1st and 3rd items'; (2) a green diamond-in-circle operator 'Removes shading from 1st and 2nd items'; (3) a green Y-in-circle operator 'Replaces 1st item with copy of 3rd item'; (4) a green slashed-oval operator 'Mirrors entire sequence in y axis'. Below, a puzzle: an input sequence of three shapes (open circle, small filled triangle, outlined pencil) goes through an operator in a green circle with a question mark and becomes an output sequence (open circle, outline triangle, filled pencil). Options: A: only the striped-circle operator; B: striped-circle or the diamond-in-circle operator; C: only the Y-in-circle operator; D: only the diamond-in-circle operator.]

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Question 84

The average life expectancy for the entire United States (US) population is 73.9 years, born in Hawaii will live an average of 77 years, and those born in Louisiana, 71.7 years. If a newlywed couple from Louisiana were to begin their family in Hawaii, therefore, their children would be expected to live longer than would be the case if the family remained in Louisiana. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the conclusion drawn in the passage?

A. Insurance company statisticians do not believe that moving to Hawaii will significantly lengthen the average Louisianan's life.
B. The governor of Louisiana has falsely alleged that statistics for his state are inaccurate
C. The longevity ascribed to Hawaii's current population is attributable mostly to genetically determined factors
D. Thirty percent of all Louisianans can expect to live longer than 77 years

Question 85

Choose one of the following options that means the opposite of the given word: AWARE

A. Uncertain
B. Ignorant
C. Sure
D. Doubtful

Question 86

Six people P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting on the ground in a hexagonal shape. 1. All the sides of the hexagon, so formed are of same length. 2. P is not adjacent to Q or R. 3. S is not adjacent to R or T. 4. Q and R are adjacent. 5. U is in the middle of S and R. Who is at the same distance from S as T is from S?

A. Q
B. S
C. R
D. U

Question 87

Which one will replace the question mark? (1 mark) [Figure description: Three circles each with a number in the centre and four numbers placed around it (top, left, right, bottom). First circle: centre 0, top 4, left 5, right 6, bottom 7. Second: centre 1, top 8, left 7, right 6, bottom 4. Third: centre ?, top 0, left 11, right 2, bottom 2.]

A. 42
B. 12
C. 44
D. 11

Question 88

Which one will replace the question mark? (1 mark) [Figure description: An ellipse divided into four quadrants by a cross: top-left 1, top-right 8, bottom-left ?, bottom-right 27.]

A. 78
B. 64
C. 75
D. 84

Question 89

Which one replaces the question mark? (2 marks) [Figure description: A symbol-transformation puzzle. An input string 'ABCD' passes through a four-diamonds-in-a-square symbol and then an 'H-shaped' symbol to give 'BCDX'. In the lower branch, from the first symbol, going down through the H-shaped symbol gives 'BCDX'. Another branch goes through an arrow-in-box symbol and then a filled-circle symbol to give 'XCD'. The question: ABC passed through the arrow-in-box symbol gives ?. Options: A: ABCX; B: CBA; C: ABCZ; D: AB.]

A. ABCX
B. CBA
C. ABCZ
D. AB

Question 90

Fact 1: Islands are surrounded by water. Fact 2: Maui is an island. Fact 3: Maui was formed by a volcano. If the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be a fact? I: Maui is surrounded by water. II: All islands are formed by volcanoes. III: All volcanoes are on islands.

A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. None of the statements is a known fact

Question 91

The theory of relativity, developed by Albert Einstein, revolutionized the field of physics. It challenged the traditional Newtonian concepts of time, space, and gravity. Einstein's theory proposed that time and space are not absolute but are interconnected dimensions that form a four-dimensional fabric called space time. It also introduced the concept of gravity as the curvature of space time caused by the presence of mass and energy. What was the impact of Albert Einstein's theory of relativity?

A. It presented a new model of space time and revolutionized the understanding of time, space, and gravity
B. It disproved the traditional Newtonian concepts and established the absolute nature of time and space
C. It focused on the interplay between mass and energy but did not significantly impact the field of physics
D. It introduced the concept of space time but had minimal influence on the understanding of gravity

Question 92

B2CD, _____, BCD4, B5CD, BC6D (2 marks)

A. B2C2D
B. BC3D
C. B2C3D
D. BCD7

Question 93

Study the table carefully and answer the question given below. Which company has the highest actual production of cars over these years? (1 mark) [Table: Projected (P) and Actual (A) Production of Cars of 5 Different companies (Numbers in '000). Years 1987 to 1992. 1987: A P22 A20; B P16 A12; C P21 A20; D P22 A16; E P22 A20. 1988: A 26/21; B 21/14; C 22/18; D 20/18; E 18/16. 1989: A 24/22; B 15/14; C 26/20; D 22/21; E 20/18. 1990: A 29/23; B 14/10; C 30/22; D 29/23; E 23/19. 1991: A 28/21; B 18/15; C 34/28; D 26/24; E 21/17. 1992: A 31/20; B 22/18; C 36/31; D 30/28; E 28/26.]

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Question 94

Study the table carefully and answer the questions given below. In which bank was the disbursement of loans more than 25 percent of all banks in 1986? (1 mark) [Table: Loans disbursed by five banks over the years (in crores of rupees). Banks I to V; years 1982-1986. I: 18, 23, 45, 30, 70. II: 27, 33, 18, 41, 37. III: 29, 29, 22, 17, 11. IV: 31, 16, 28, 32, 43. V: 13, 19, 27, 34, 42. Total: 118, 120, 140, 154, 203.]

A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV

Question 95

Find the point c in the curve f(x) = x^3 + x^2 + x + 1 in the interval [0, 1] where slope of a tangent to a curve is equals to the slope of a line joining (0,1) (2 marks)

A. 0.64
B. 0.54
C. 0.44
D. 0.34