Section: Engineering Mathematics | Marks: 2
Let π(π§) be an analytic function such that π π(πβ²(π§)) = 3π₯2 β4π¦β3π¦2, π(π) = 0, πβ²(0) = 0, where π= ββ1. Then the value of π(1) is equal to
- A. 4 + 2π
- B. 1 + 5π
- C. 1 βπ
- D. 4 β2π
Answer: B. 1 + 5π