ISRO Mechanical & Aerospace 2012 Question Paper & Solutions

Attempt the ISRO Mechanical & Aerospace 2012 previous year paper in real CBT exam mode or practice mode with verified answers and explanations.

All ISRO Mechanical & Aerospace papers

80 questions.

Question 1

Area moment of inertia for the quadrant shown is

Figure for question 1, ISRO Mechanical & Aerospace 2012

  • A. \pi r^4 / 2
  • B. \pi r^4 / 4
  • C. \pi r^4 / 8
  • D. \pi r^4 / 16

Answer: D. \pi r^4 / 16

Explanation: For a full circle, I = \pi r^4 / 4. A quadrant is 1/4th. With respect to diametric axes, I = 1/4 * (\pi r^4 / 4) = \pi r^4 / 16.

Question 2

A column of length 'L' is fixed at bottom end and hinged at the other end. This column is restrained from lateral displacement at 1/3rd height. The buckling load is given by

Figure for question 2, ISRO Mechanical & Aerospace 2012

  • A. 9\pi² EI / (4L^2)
  • B. 4\pi² EI / L²
  • C. 4\pi² EI / (9L^2)
  • D. \pi² EI / L²

Answer: A. 9\pi² EI / (4L^2)

Explanation: The restraint creates two segments. Top segment (2L/3) is hinged-hinged: P = \pi² EI / (2L/3)^2 = 9\pi² EI / 4L^2. Bottom segment (L/3) is fixed-hinged: P approx 2\pi² EI / (L/3)^2 = 18\pi² EI / L². Failure occurs at the lower load.

Question 3

A shaft has two heavy rotors mounted on it. The transverse natural frequency considering each rotor separately is 100 hz & 200 hz respectively. The lowest critical speed is

  • A. 13000 rpm
  • B. 5367 rpm
  • C. 6450 rpm
  • D. 9343 rpm

Answer: B. 5367 rpm

Explanation: Dunkerley's Formula: 1/f² = 1/f1^2 + 1/f2^2. 1/f² = 1/100^2 + 1/200^2 = 5/40000. f = $\sqrt{8000}$ = 89.44 Hz. N = 60f = 5366.4 rpm.

Question 4

A mass 'M' is suspended from a ceiling through a string of length 'L'. This mass moves in a circle of horizontal radius 'r' at constant speed such that it is a conical pendulum. The tension in the string will be

  • A. mgL / (2\sqrt{L²-r²})
  • B. mgL / \sqrt{L²}
  • C. mgL / \sqrt{r²}
  • D. mgL / \sqrt{L²-r²}

Answer: D. mgL / \sqrt{L²-r²}

Explanation: T cos(theta) = mg. cos(theta) = h/L = $\sqrt{L²-r²}$/L. T = mgL / $\sqrt{L²-r²}$.

Question 5

The stress in the rod AB in the pin jointed truss ABCD (where P acts at C downwards) is

Figure for question 5, ISRO Mechanical & Aerospace 2012

  • A. 2P / \pi d²
  • B. 4P / \pi d²
  • C. 0
  • D. P / 2\pi d²

Answer: B. 4P / \pi d²

Explanation: Force in AB balances P. Stress = Force/Area = P / (\pi d² / 4) = 4P / \pi d².

Question 6

The number of degrees of freedom for a mechanism with 6 links and 7 binary joints is

Figure for question 6, ISRO Mechanical & Aerospace 2012

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 4

Answer: B. 1

Explanation: F = 3(N-1) - 2J. F = 3(6-1) - 2(7) = 15 - 14 = 1.

Question 7

A plate is held by a chain AB through hinge joints. The plate is pulled with a force T. The tension in the chain is given by

Figure for question 7, ISRO Mechanical & Aerospace 2012

  • A. (\sqrt{3}/2)T
  • B. (\sqrt{2}/3)T
  • C. T/2
  • D. 3\sqrt{2}T

Answer: D. 3\sqrt{2}T

Explanation: Based on moment equilibrium and geometry (often 45 degree angle implied by L,L dimensions), T_chain = 3 * $\sqrt{2}$ * T.

Question 8

In a turn buckle joint, both mating rods will have

  • A. Right hand threads
  • B. Left hand threads
  • C. Right hand and left hand threads
  • D. Multiple threads

Answer: C. Right hand and left hand threads

Explanation: Opposite threads allow the turnbuckle to tighten or loosen both rods simultaneously when rotated.

Question 9

In a flat belt drive, the belt can be subjected to a maximum tension (T) and centrifugal tension (Tc). The condition of transmission of maximum power is given by

  • A. T = Tc
  • B. T = 2Tc
  • C. T = 3Tc
  • D. T = \sqrt{3}Tc

Answer: C. T = 3Tc

Explanation: For maximum power, centrifugal tension is 1/3rd of maximum tension.

Question 10

The diameter of a soap bubble with has an inside pressure of 2.5 N/m² over the atmospheric pressure and a surface tension of 0.0125 N/m is

  • A. 40 mm
  • B. 4 mm
  • C. 16 mm
  • D. 60 mm

Answer: A. 40 mm

Explanation: P = 8*sigma / d. d = 8*0.0125 / 2.5 = 0.04 m = 40 mm.

Question 11

Find the loss of head due to friction in a smooth pipe of rectangular cross section of 1m x 0.5 m and 10m long. Velocity of flow is 10 m/s and the friction coefficient is 0.01962.

  • A. 4m
  • B. 6m
  • C. 8m
  • D. 10m

Answer: B. 6m

Explanation: Hydraulic mean depth m = Area/Perimeter = 0.5/3 = 1/6. hf = f L v² / (2 g m) = 0.01962 * 10 * 100 / (2 * 9.81 * 1/6) = 19.62 / (3.27) = 6 m.

Question 12

When a supersonic flow is admitted into a convergent duct, the flow will

  • A. Accelerate
  • B. Decelerate
  • C. No change
  • D. None of the above

Answer: B. Decelerate

Explanation: A converging duct acts as a diffuser for supersonic flow, decreasing velocity and increasing pressure.

Question 13

Which configuration measures the stagnation pressure?

Figure for question 13, ISRO Mechanical & Aerospace 2012

  • A. Wall tap
  • B. Pitot tube facing flow
  • C. Tube facing downstream
  • D. Tube perpendicular to flow

Answer: B. Pitot tube facing flow

Explanation: A tube opening facing directly upstream brings the fluid to rest, measuring stagnation pressure.

Question 14

The maximum lift in a centrifugal pump would be close to 'X' if the pump is handling cold water (25 C) from an open tank at sea level with no friction and turbulence loses, where 'X' is equal to

  • A. 10 m
  • B. 1.03 m
  • C. 100 m
  • D. 30 m

Answer: A. 10 m

Explanation: Theoretical suction lift is limited by atmospheric pressure, approx 10.3m.

Question 15

Both pressure and velocity of steam drops in the moving blades of

  • A. Impulse turbine
  • B. Velocity compounded impulse turbine
  • C. Reaction turbine
  • D. Pressure compounded impulse turbine

Answer: C. Reaction turbine

Explanation: In reaction turbines, expansion (pressure drop) occurs in both fixed and moving blades.

Question 16

A model of a golf ball is to be studied to determine the effects of the dimples. A sphere 10 times larger in diameter than an actual golf ball is used in the wind tunnel study. What speed should be selected for the model to simulate a prototype speed of 50 m/s?

  • A. 0.2m/s
  • B. 5m/s
  • C. 50m/s
  • D. 10m/s

Answer: B. 5m/s

Explanation: Reynolds number similarity: Vm Dm = Vp Dp. Vm (10 Dp) = 50 Dp. Vm = 5 m/s.

Question 17

The sound of explosion on a ship located 10km away from the beach was heard 28.6 seconds after the explosion was seen. Estimate the temperature of air at that time.

  • A. 31 C
  • B. 31 K
  • C. 26.2 C
  • D. 288.5 K

Answer: A. 31 C

Explanation: c = 10000/28.6 = 349.65 m/s. c = $\sqrt{1.4 * 287 * T}$. T = 304 K = 31 C.

Question 18

A spherical balloon is filled with helium at sea level. Helium and balloon material together weight 500 N. If the net upward lift force on the balloon is also 500 N, what is the diameter of the balloon?

  • A. 5.42m
  • B. 6.78m
  • C. 3.43m
  • D. 2.34m

Answer: A. 5.42m

Explanation: Buoyant force = Weight + Lift = 500 + 500 = 1000 N. 1000 = rho_air * g * V. V = 83.2 m³. D = 5.42 m.

Question 19

Air at 20 C and 10^5 Pa enters the bottom of an angle of 85 degree conical flow meter duct at 0.3 kg/s. Estimate the weight of the body in Newton's

Figure for question 19, ISRO Mechanical & Aerospace 2012

  • A. 2.5N
  • B. 1N
  • C. 3.5N
  • D. 4N

Answer: A. 2.5N

Explanation: Force balance using momentum equation yields approx 2.5N.

Question 20

A jet of water issues from a nozzle with a velocity 20 m/s on a flat plate moving away from it at 10 m/s. The cross-sectional area of the jet is 0.01 m². The force developed on the plate is

  • A. 1000 N
  • B. 100 N
  • C. 10 N
  • D. 2000 N

Answer: A. 1000 N

Explanation: F = rho A (V - u)^2 = 1000 * 0.01 * (20 - 10)^2 = 1000 N.

Question 21

The laminar boundary layer thickness varies as

  • A. 1/$\sqrt{x}$
  • B. x^(1/7)
  • C. x^(1/2)
  • D. x^(6/7)

Answer: C. x^(1/2)

Explanation: Delta varies as $\sqrt{x}$ for laminar boundary layer.

Question 22

An increase in pressure of a liquid from 7.5 MPa to 15 MPa results into 0.2 percent decrease in its volume. The coefficient of compressibility of the liquid in m²/N is

  • A. 0.267 * 10^-9
  • B. 2.67 * 10^-9
  • C. 1 * 10^-9
  • D. None

Answer: A. 0.267 * 10^-9

Explanation: Beta = (dV/V) / dP = 0.002 / (7.5 * 10^6) = 0.267 * 10^-9.

Question 23

A reservoir of capacity 0.01 m³ is completely filled with a fluid of compressibility 0.75 * 10^-9 m²/N. The amount of fluid that will spill over if pressure is reduced by 2 * 10^7 N/m² is

  • A. 1 * 10^-4
  • B. 1.5 * 10^-4
  • C. 0.15 * 10^-4
  • D. None

Answer: B. 1.5 * 10^-4

Explanation: dV = V * Beta * dP = 0.01 * 0.75e-9 * 2e7 = 1.5e-4 m³.

Question 24

The extent of pressure produced due to water hammer depends on

  • A. Velocity of flow
  • B. Length of pipe
  • C. Valve closure time
  • D. All the above

Answer: D. All the above

Explanation: Water hammer pressure is a function of fluid velocity, pipe characteristics, and closure time.

Question 25

Rank of the matrix A = [[1, 1, 2], [1, 2, 3], [0, -1, 1]] is

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: D. 3

Explanation: Determinant is non-zero, so rank is 3.

Question 26

The value of t for which A + tB is perpendicular to C where A = i + 2j + 3k, B = -i + 2j + k and C = 3i + j

  • A. 5
  • B. 4
  • C. 12
  • D. 0

Answer: A. 5

Explanation: Dot product of (A+tB) and C is zero. Solving gives t=5.

Question 27

A x B is a vector

  • A. Parallel to A
  • B. Parallel to B
  • C. Perpendicular to both A & B
  • D. Parallel to both

Answer: C. Perpendicular to both A & B

Explanation: Cross product yields a vector perpendicular to the plane of the operands.

Question 28

The equation of the plane through the line (x-1)/3 = (y-4)/2 = (z-4)/-2 and parallel to the line (x+1)/2 = (y-1)/-4 = (z+2)/1 is

  • A. 3x + 2y - 2z = 101
  • B. 2x - 4y + z = 98
  • C. 6x + 7y + 16z = 98
  • D. 6x - 8y - 2z = 101

Answer: C. 6x + 7y + 16z = 98

Explanation: Normal is cross product of direction vectors. Equation derived is 6x + 7y + 16z = 98.

Question 29

Let E and F be any two events with P (E U F) = 0.8, P (E) = 0.4 and P(E/F) = 0.3. Then P (F) is

  • A. 3/7
  • B. 4/7
  • C. 3/5
  • D. 2/5

Answer: B. 4/7

Explanation: Using P(E U F) = P(E) + P(F) - P(E n F) and P(E n F) = P(E/F)P(F).

Question 30

The approximate value of y (0.1) from dy/dx = x^2y-1, y(0) = 1 is

  • A. 0.900
  • B. 1.001
  • C. 0.802
  • D. 0.994

Answer: A. 0.900

Explanation: Euler's method: y1 = 1 + 0.1 * (0 - 1) = 0.9.

Question 31

1 + i is equivalent to

  • A. $\sqrt{2}$ e^(-i pi/4)
  • B. $\sqrt{2}$ e^(i pi/4)
  • C. 2 e^(-i pi/4)
  • D. 2 e^(i pi/4)

Answer: B. $\sqrt{2}$ e^(i pi/4)

Explanation: Magnitude $\sqrt{2}$, angle 45 degrees.

Question 32

In a class of 45 students, the mean mark of 25 girls is 32 and the mean mark of 20 boys is 27.5. What is the class mean?

  • A. 32
  • B. 27.5
  • C. 29.75
  • D. 30

Answer: D. 30

Explanation: (25*32 + 20*27.5)/45 = 30.

Question 33

If L {f(t)} = F(s), then the value of L {e^(-at) f(t)} is

  • A. F (s-a)
  • B. F (s+a)
  • C. F (s)
  • D. F (e^as)

Answer: B. F (s+a)

Explanation: Shifting theorem.

Question 34

The probability that A happens is 1/3. The odds against happening of A are

  • A. 2 : 1
  • B. 3 : 2
  • C. 1 : 2
  • D. 2 : 3

Answer: A. 2 : 1

Explanation: P(not A) / P(A) = (2/3) / (1/3) = 2.

Question 35

Draft on pattern for casting is provided for

  • A. Shrinkage allowance
  • B. Identification
  • C. Taper to facilitate removal
  • D. Machining allowance

Answer: C. Taper to facilitate removal

Explanation: Draft allows pattern removal without mold damage.

Question 36

Welding spatter is

  • A. Welding defect
  • B. Flux
  • C. Electrode Coating
  • D. Welding technique

Answer: A. Welding defect

Explanation: Spatter is the splashing of metal droplets.

Question 37

Which of the following statements is false about annealing? (Annealing is done to)

  • A. Harden Steel slightly
  • B. Relieve Stress
  • C. Soften metal
  • D. Permit further cold working

Answer: A. Harden Steel slightly

Explanation: Annealing softens metal, it does not harden it.

Question 38

The property of corrosion resistance of chromium Stainless Steel is due to

  • A. Predominant nature of Cr
  • B. Thin film of oxygen/moisture
  • C. Formation of thin film of Cr2O3
  • D. Inherent property of Cr

Answer: C. Formation of thin film of Cr2O3

Explanation: Passive oxide layer protects the steel.

Question 39

Hot working operation is carried out at

  • A. Re-crystallization temperature
  • B. Near plastic stage temperature
  • C. Below re-crystallization
  • D. Above re-crystallization

Answer: D. Above re-crystallization

Explanation: Hot working is deformation above the recrystallization temperature.

Question 40

The engineering and true strains for a bar which is doubled in length during tension test are

  • A. e = 1.0 epsilon = 0.693
  • B. e = 2 epsilon = 1
  • C. e = 1/2 epsilon = 1/2
  • D. None

Answer: A. e = 1.0 epsilon = 0.693

Explanation: e = (2L-L)/L = 1. epsilon = ln(2L/L) = ln(2) = 0.693.

Question 41

The purpose of adding wood flour to the moulding sand is to improve

  • A. Green strength
  • B. Hot Strength
  • C. Collapsibility
  • D. Permeability

Answer: C. Collapsibility

Explanation: Wood flour burns out allowing sand to collapse as casting cools.

Question 42

Stretch forming is a process in which

  • A. All deformations occur in direction of stretch
  • B. All forces are applied in direction of stretch
  • C. Advantage is taken of plastic state
  • D. No dies are used

Answer: C. Advantage is taken of plastic state

Explanation: Material is stretched to yield point to facilitate forming.

Question 43

In which type of welding, a pool of molten metal is used?

  • A. Submerged arc welding
  • B. Electro slag welding
  • C. TIG welding
  • D. MIG welding

Answer: B. Electro slag welding

Explanation: ESW uses a conductive slag pool to melt filler and base metal.

Question 44

A mild steel block... straight slab cutter... value of maximum uncut chip thickness?

  • A. 0.00263 mm
  • B. 0.00363 mm
  • C. 0.00463 mm
  • D. 0.00563 mm

Answer: D. 0.00563 mm

Explanation: Using formula for slab milling chip thickness.

Question 45

Match List I (Instruments) with List II (Applications)

  • A. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
  • B. A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
  • C. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
  • D. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

Answer: B. A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

Explanation: Talysurf-Roughness; Telescopic gauge-Internal Dia; Transfer Calipers-Slots; Autocollimator-Flatness.

Question 46

A shaft has dimension 35 -0.009/-0.025, fundamental deviation and tolerance are

  • A. -0.025, 0.008
  • B. -0.0025, 0.016
  • C. -0.009, 0.008
  • D. -0.009, 0.016

Answer: D. -0.009, 0.016

Explanation: Fund dev is upper limit (-0.009). Tolerance is difference (0.016).

Question 47

Deformation under constant load over time is

  • A. Creep
  • B. Fatigue
  • C. Impact
  • D. Malleability

Answer: A. Creep

Explanation: Time-dependent deformation is creep.

Question 48

Which is a wrong statement?

  • A. Phosphorus raises yield point
  • B. Lining of open hearth furnace controls impurities
  • C. Blast furnace uses coke
  • D. Manganese added for fluidity

Answer: B. Lining of open hearth furnace controls impurities

Explanation: Though lining affects chemistry, the statement is flagged as wrong in context.

Question 49

18:4:1 High Speed Steel contains

  • A. 18W, 4Cr, 1V
  • B. 18Cr, 4W, 1V
  • C. 18W, 4V, 1Cr
  • D. 18V, 4Cr, 1W

Answer: A. 18W, 4Cr, 1V

Explanation: Tungsten 18%, Chromium 4%, Vanadium 1%.

Question 50

Water boiled in coffee maker... power rating?

  • A. 0.90 kW
  • B. 1.52 kW
  • C. 1.05 kW
  • D. 1.24 kW

Answer: C. 1.05 kW

Explanation: Calculation yields approx 1.05 kW.

Question 51

Adiabatic heat exchanger... exit temperature of cold water?

  • A. 27 C
  • B. 32 C
  • C. 85 C
  • D. 90 C

Answer: C. 85 C

Explanation: Energy balance indicates 85 C.

Question 52

Log mean area 'A' is

  • A. log ratio terms
  • B. (A2-A1)/ln(A2/A1)
  • C. log difference
  • D. None

Answer: B. (A2-A1)/ln(A2/A1)

Explanation: Formula for log mean area.

Question 53

Nusselt number is ratio of

  • A. Convective/Conductive resistances
  • B. Conductive/Convective resistances
  • C. Heat rates
  • D. Viscosities

Answer: B. Conductive/Convective resistances

Explanation: Nu = hL/k = (L/k) / (1/h) = R_cond / R_conv.

Question 54

Zeroth law not valid for

  • A. Mixing water
  • B. Mixing milk
  • C. Mixing steam
  • D. Mixing water and acid

Answer: D. Mixing water and acid

Explanation: Chemical reaction heat release violates simple thermal equilibrium premise.

Question 55

Work obtained is greatest for PV^n = C when

  • A. n large
  • B. n small
  • C. n=0
  • D. n=1.4

Answer: C. n=0

Explanation: Isobaric (n=0) gives maximum area under curve for expansion.

Question 56

Air compressed to half volume at constant pressure, entropy change

  • A. Increase
  • B. Decrease
  • C. No change
  • D. Unpredictable

Answer: B. Decrease

Explanation: Volume decrease at constant P means Temperature decrease, thus Entropy decreases.

Question 57

Cycle on P-V diagram represented in T-S diagram by

Figure for question 57, ISRO Mechanical & Aerospace 2012

  • A. a
  • B. b
  • C. c
  • D. d

Answer: B. b

Explanation: Matching process curves.

Question 58

If 2 bar air at 27 C heated to 177 C at constant volume, pressure is

  • A. 6.56 bar
  • B. 3 bar
  • C. 9 bar
  • D. 13.11 bar

Answer: B. 3 bar

Explanation: P2 = P1 * T2/T1 = 2 * 450/300 = 3 bar.

Question 59

Frictionless heat engine 100% efficient only if exhaust temp is

  • A. Equal to input
  • B. Less than input
  • C. 0 K
  • D. 0 C

Answer: C. 0 K

Explanation: Carnot efficiency = 1 - TL/TH. 100% implies TL=0.

Question 60

Ideal engine absorbs heat at 127 C and rejects at 77 C. Efficiency is

  • A. 13%
  • B. 39%
  • C. 50%
  • D. 40%

Answer: A. 13%

Explanation: 1 - 350/400 = 1/8 = 12.5%.

Question 61

Francis turbine power output at 100m head (from 5000kW at 25m)

  • A. 20000
  • B. 30000
  • C. 40000
  • D. 50000

Answer: C. 40000

Explanation: Power proportional to H^1 May 5000 * (100/25)^1.5 = 40000.

Question 62

Steam turbine mean diameter

  • A. 3.73 m
  • B. 4.73 m
  • C. 5.63 m
  • D. 4.96 m

Answer: B. 4.73 m

Explanation: Calculation based on velocity triangles.

Question 63

Refrigerator power input

  • A. 30W
  • B. 33W
  • C. 56W
  • D. 124W

Answer: B. 33W

Explanation: COP calculation yielding 33W.

Question 64

Efficiency order for same compression ratio

  • A. Dual > Diesel > Otto
  • B. Otto > Dual > Diesel
  • C. Diesel > Dual > Otto
  • D. Otto > Diesel > Dual

Answer: B. Otto > Dual > Diesel

Explanation: Standard comparison for same compression ratio.

Question 65

Section modulus of triangular section

Figure for question 65, ISRO Mechanical & Aerospace 2012

  • A. bh²/6
  • B. bh²/36
  • C. bh²/24
  • D. hb²/36

Answer: C. bh²/24

Explanation: Z = I/y = (bh³/36) / (2h/3) = bh²/24.

Question 66

Stress diagram for eccentric load on rectangular column

Figure for question 66, ISRO Mechanical & Aerospace 2012

  • A. a
  • B. b
  • C. c
  • D. d

Answer: A. a

Explanation: Combined bending and direct stress.

Question 67

Shaft A radius half of B. Power of A is ... of B

  • A. 1/8
  • B. 8
  • C. 16
  • D. 2

Answer: A. 1/8

Explanation: Power proportional to r³.

Question 68

Natural frequency of 4 spring system

Figure for question 68, ISRO Mechanical & Aerospace 2012

  • A. $\sqrt{4k/m}$
  • B. $\sqrt{k/4m}$
  • C. ...
  • D. ...

Answer: A. $\sqrt{4k/m}$

Explanation: Parallel springs.

Question 69

Lowest friction bearing

  • A. Hydrostatic
  • B. Roller
  • C. Aero-static
  • D. Hydrodynamic

Answer: C. Aero-static

Explanation: Air has very low viscosity.

Question 70

Velocity at point P on rolling disc

Figure for question 70, ISRO Mechanical & Aerospace 2012

  • A. 3V
  • B. $\sqrt{3}$V
  • C. V/2
  • D. 2V

Answer: B. $\sqrt{3}$V

Explanation: Vector addition of velocities.

Question 71

Viscous damping factor from log decrement

  • A. 20%
  • B. 25%
  • C. 30%
  • D. 15%

Answer: B. 25%

Explanation: Calculation gives 0.25.

Question 72

Elevator cable tension

  • A. 1204
  • B. 9800
  • C. 2000
  • D. 11800

Answer: D. 11800

Explanation: T = m(g+a).

Question 73

Block friction cable tension

Figure for question 73, ISRO Mechanical & Aerospace 2012

  • A. 176
  • B. 196
  • C. 481
  • D. 981

Answer: C. 481

Explanation: Equilibrium calculation.

Question 74

Suspension damping factor

  • A. 0.471
  • B. ...
  • C. ...
  • D. ...

Answer: A. 0.471

Explanation: Zeta calculation.

Question 75

Balancing mass radial position

  • A. 50
  • B. 120
  • C. 150
  • D. 280

Answer: C. 150

Explanation: Balancing equation.

Question 76

Gear tooth tangential load

  • A. 221
  • B. 22.1
  • C. 25.1
  • D. 251

Answer: B. 22.1

Explanation: Power/Velocity calculation.

Question 77

Steel rod length change

Figure for question 77, ISRO Mechanical & Aerospace 2012

  • A. 1
  • B. -10
  • C. 10
  • D. -20

Answer: B. -10

Explanation: Sum of PL/AE.

Question 78

Planetary gear rotations

Figure for question 78, ISRO Mechanical & Aerospace 2012

  • A. 3
  • B. 4
  • C. 1
  • D. 1/3

Answer: B. 4

Explanation: Epicyclic gear train calculation.

Question 79

Mohr circle reduces to point when

  • A. pure shear
  • B. uniaxial
  • C. equal axial stress...
  • D. equal opposite...

Answer: C. equal axial stress...

Explanation: Radius is zero.

Question 80

Shear stress distribution rectangular beam

Figure for question 80, ISRO Mechanical & Aerospace 2012

  • A. a
  • B. b
  • C. c
  • D. d

Answer: D. d

Explanation: Parabolic profile.